QM Forum
The Quran => General Discussions => Topic started by: maverick83pk on September 30, 2015, 02:39:08 AM
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Dear All,
Please clear my confusion, as some people say that the weaning period of 2 years and 30 months in the quran stated in the verses 31:14 and 46:15 are apparent contradictions.
Are these really contradictions? or are we not understanding the verses the right way.
Kindly elaborate and give me a chance to oblige.
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Dear maverick83pm
As-salamu alaykum
There is no contradiction. What is present in my humble view, is a beautiful insight.
Please respectfully allow me to explain.
Verse 46:15 mentions both 'hamluhu' (bearing) and 'fisaluhu' (weaning) as 30 months.
Verse 31:14 only mentions the time of 'fisaluhu' (weaning) as 'amayni' which is 2 years or 24 months
Therefore:
Bearing + Weaning = 30 months (46:15)
Weaning = 24 months (31:14)
Therefore:
Bearing = 6 months (30-24)
Now, a total gestation period for a human being is approximately 9 months. Therefore, we get the point at which 'nafs' / soul is possibly recognised by the Quran which is approximately 3 months (9-6) after conception.
I have also discussed this in other writings as in the example [1] below.
I hope this clarifies the matter, God willing.
Regards,
Joseph
REFERENCE:
[1] A Question on Abortion
http://quransmessage.com/forum/index.php?topic=551.0
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Thank you so much Brother Joseph! You are the best! just a little query, sometimes the pregnancy is completed in 6 months, in that case soul would be present from the 1st week of conception?
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Dear maverick83pm
As-salamu alaykum
My humble view would be that as a general rule, the soul would still become part of the embryo about 12 weeks / 3 months after conception. A 6 month pregnancy would in the main, simply be premature.
I hope that helps, God willing
Joseph
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Dear brother Joseph,
Salam alaykum.
In the answering-christianity website, the author who has refuted this seemingly contradiction said that verse 31:14 which mentions that the weaning period is two years, this period can actually vary because of the "in / fi" in the Arabic text. He uses Yusuf Ali's interpretation of this verse and says, "babies breast feed for up to two years. The period could be less. This is clearly seen in the following "in في" in the Noble Verse, which means within."
Do you think this is a correct interpretation?
Also regarding 46:15, the author say, "the 30 months here is a picture, and not an exact number ... The 30 months here couldn't be an exact unchangeable number figure here, because both the gestation periods and the needs of children for breast feeding vary. Some are longer and some are shorter. But parents, nonetheless, should aim for completing the 30 total months period."
Please share your thoughts on the above.
Reference: http://www.answering-christianity.com/pregancy_gestation_nursing_weaning_total_months.htm
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Why does the book use the word "amayni" in 31:14 and why does it use the word "hawlayni" in 2:233? Aren't both of these talking about years? We again see the word "havl" in 2:240 but the word "sanah" in 18:25. And why do we see two different words ("sanah" and "aman") again in 29:14, both in the same sentence? I used to think like Joseph Islam about abortion issue, but the multiplicity of words which are always translated as "year" is now making me doubtful. I'm not sure anymore. If there is a choice of words for a concept as simple as the timeframe of 12 months, there must be a reason. Furthermore, the book says there are 12 months in a year, yet it doesn't pronounce the number of days in a month. I'd appreciate any different points of view.