salam
Why is male pronoun fi-hi is used for Maryam (as) ? Some say she had both male and female reproductive cells in her body as a miracle she gave a virgin birth to Isa (pbuh) ? What do you think about this ?
Wa alaikum assalam Ilker,
Mary is clearly referred to throughout the Quran as a female addressee. Even in the verse you cite (66:12), she is addressed as a female. Therefore one must beg the question, why is it that when we come to an isolated reference to God speaking about breathing His Spirit into 'something', this has questioned the whole of Mary's physiology?
Please kindly see verse 21:91 where a similar phrase is used and the singular object pronoun is in the 3rd form female form 'fiha' in reference to Mary. It is not fantastic to note in the Quran when God fashions a child in the womb of its mother, the reference to what God breathes 'into' is in the masculine form. See verse 32:9 as an example.
With regards the claim by some that Mary could be a hermaphrodite is wholly unwarranted. In my view, such fantastic claims are borne from the inability of some to accept / reconcile Biblical portents [1] and my humble advice would be to dismiss such a claim as being totally baseless.
Regards,
Joseph
REFERENCES
[1] ALLEGORICAL OR LITERAL MEANINGS TO BIBLICAL STORIES IN THE QURAN
https://www.facebook.com/joseph.a.islam/posts/362736677196799
[2] THE VIRGIN BIRTH OF PROPHET JESUS (pbuh)
http://quransmessage.com/articles/virgin-birth%20FM3.htm
salam,
Alhamdulillah and thank you for your kind reply. There was a video about it in Turkish where two scholars (one was a Prof. on Islamic studies and the other was a muslim doctor of medicine). They talked about this along with some references from the Quran. They also mentioned 3:36 (" she said: My Lord! Surely I have brought it forth a female-- and Allah knew best what she brought forth-- " ) along with 66:12. Then the muslim doctor talked about the women in the medical literature, who gave birth without any sexual intercourse, who had both male and female cells in their womb. What was interesting that all those women in the literature always gave birth to "boys" !
Maybe it's not correct but that's why i qot really curious about that... Anyways thanks again for your time. ALLAH knows best.
May ALLAH (swt) guide all of us to His path...
Quote from: ilker on August 02, 2016, 04:56:51 AM
salam,
Alhamdulillah and thank you for your kind reply. There was a video about it in Turkish where two scholars (one was a Prof. on Islamic studies and the other was a muslim doctor of medicine). They talked about this along with some references from the Quran. They also mentioned 3:36 (" she said: My Lord! Surely I have brought it forth a female-- and Allah knew best what she brought forth-- " ) along with 66:12. Then the muslim doctor talked about the women in the medical literature, who gave birth without any sexual intercourse, who had both male and female cells in their womb. What was interesting that all those women in the literature always gave birth to "boys" !
Maybe it's not correct but that's why i qot really curious about that... Anyways thanks again for your time. ALLAH knows best.
May ALLAH (swt) guide all of us to His path...
actually it was the host who mentioned 3:36 not the Prof and the Doc :) They also said it was just an opinion, a theory if you will. I had to correct this to avoid causing misunderstandings.
peace ilker,
In 66:12 it seems the pronoun could refer to "furj", but in any case it doesn't eliminate the possibility of hermaphrodite/intersex. Past thread:
http://quransmessage.com/forum/index.php?topic=829.msg3111#msg3111
peace Wakas,
thanks for your reply :)
Peace. What about her statement "أَنَّىٰ يَكُونُ لِي غُلَامٌ" in 19:20?
salam eliiah
what about that ayah ?
"She said, "How can I have a boy while no man has touched me and I have not been unchaste?"
Whether this theory is correct or not (ALLAH swt knows it for sure), she has never been unchaste. I guess it's just a biological possibility.