QM Forum
The Quran => General Discussions => Topic started by: Deliverance on June 22, 2014, 07:42:41 PM
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Salam to all,
The concept of "zakat" is an important part of Islam and belongs to the "5 Pillars of Islam" but is it really meant to pay a ceartain amount of Money to the poor,because it is very often mentioned in the quran twinned with the establishmend of the salat.
My inpression is it is something we gained from the salat and we should take to the People.
"Zaka" means also to pure oneself
Is it probably meant after connected with god(salat?) and beeing enlighted with the love of god to spread this love to others?
excuse me Joseph if this post is against your concept of "zakat" i have only read your final thoughts about it.
http://quransmessage.com/articles/zakah%20FM3.htm
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Assalam By referring to Arabic Dictionaries one can not tagg different meanings & divert to different meanings. Zaqat is an Establised concept of paying a part of income for the welfare of poor. Therefore one can not explain differently. What Bro JAI has describe Zaqat is only the right explanation & not you are trying to tell us
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I just don't believe in the strict concept of paying of a amount of Money to the poor alone.It is more than that,it is something we had to practice regularly cause it is connected with the daily prayers.
"Allah did aforetime take a Covenant from the Children of Israel, and We appointed twelve chieftains among them and Allah said: "I am with you: if ye (but) establish regular prayers, practise regular charity, believe in My Messengers honour and assist them, and loan to Allah a beautiful loan, verily I will wipe out from you your evils and admit you to Gardens with rivers flowing beneath; but if any of you after this resisteth faith, he hath truly wandered from the path of rectitude." (12)"
I apreciate the concept of paying an amount to the poor but you can pay a lot of Money once a year and you can still stay a Person with enmity to other People.
Sardar do you think it is just a material concept?
I was reading one Ayat which led me to think different about "Zakat" as a material giving.
"It is not righteousness that ye turn your faces to the East and the West; but righteous is he who believeth in Allah and the Last Day and the angels and the Scripture and the prophets; and giveth wealth, for love of Him, to kinsfolk and to orphans and the needy and the wayfarer and to those who ask, and to set slaves free; and observeth proper worship and payeth the poor-due. And those who keep their treaty when they make one, and the patient in tribulation and adversity and time of stress. Such are they who are sincere. Such are the God-fearing. (177)"
Here you have the mention of charity in supporting the needy with wealth and after that "Zakat" is mentioned again?
regards
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excuse me Joseph if this post is against your concept of "zakat" i have only read your final thoughts about it.
http://quransmessage.com/articles/zakah%20FM3.htm
Salaam deliverance, I really recommend you read the whole article. Br. Joseph doesn't say its a fixed amount, but an amount that those who are in authority determine based on the circumstances of the communities. He doesn't say it is only given to poor people either but from i get from the article a bit like the tax system which can be used for education, welfare, society purposes. Pls pls read the complete article before commenting, especially if you are going to mention it. Thanx. Saba
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Salam Saba,
The first lines of my first post was against the Mainstream thought of Zakat and not against JAI article.
Quote from Joseph final thoughts:
"Zakah from the Quran seems to be a 'gain' based regular tax system, reliant on the community's gains due to investments, income etc and is to be levied by the state to which their citizens owe an obligation. This is then redistributed to the society members in need."
What i have understood from his final thought is,that it is not clear what "Zakat" really means.In my last line i sugest that "Zakat" is a spirituell practise like salat.
One ayat is showing a contradiction of "Zakat" to be a payment gesture.
"Sura 58 :13"
"Is it that ye are afraid of spending sums in charity before your private consultation (with him)? If, then, ye do not so, and Allah forgives you then (at least) establish regular prayer; practice regular charity; and obey Allah and His Messenger: and Allah is well-acquainted with all that ye do. (13) "
In arabic it is first talking about "Sadaqat" and later on if you can´t pay "Sadagat" Allah is forgiving if you establish "Salat" and "Zakat"...
If you cant pay "Sadaqat" in this special example of a gathering why should one pay "Zakat" along with practicing "Salat"?
Regards
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I really encourage you to read the whole of br. Joseph's article. Why are you against reading his whole article and then quick to point out contradictions? Isn't that really really unfair of you?? The article addresses 'sadaqah' as a separate charity which doesn't have to be income based....this is covered by another article that you can access from the article. The two are separated if you had just read the article properly. Zakat is more like an obligation you owe to those in governance so the finance can be distributed for many different purposes like the state.
However in the verse you mentioned ....you are asked to give some sort of charity but if you can't you are still expected to uphold your tax / zakat obligations to the state.... I am sure zakat is also means tested, so if you are poor, then you may not be as zakatable as others who have more means ....It is up to the authorities in government to decide the thresholds.
If you don't want to read the article, then pls don't comment and bring it up as a contradiction to other verses. Saba
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However in the verse you mentioned ....you are asked to give some sort of charity but if you can't you are still expected to uphold your tax / zakat obligations to the state....
If you cant pay sadaqa in this case you cant give zakat either.
I have a different meaning about "zakat" because of its occurance with the salat,i think it is something we have to give daily and several times of the day like the prayer.
zakat also means to spread.
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Again, sadaqa is a choice and it means more than just giving money.... It has been encouraged and there is a whole article on this site about it. However, zakat is fard. Your 'different' meaning about zakat doesn't make any sense and also you have no proof that it has to be given several times a day.... If you had read the article which you quoted in your opening post, which you are persistantly avoiding it seems, you would have noted the meaning of zakat explored.
I think it is very rude to carry an argument referring to an article and then to not read it properly. You can make any claims you want. However, I haven't seen any evidence from you. Not to be rude once again ... but I'm through talking with you on this topic as you are not making any sense to me at least. Sorry. I can't understand why you would quote an article and then not read it. This is a real shame. Pls don't respond further to me on this topic as I really don't want to hear from you about it. Thanx Saba
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Salam Saba,
I read the article meanwile and it just encourage me to look for the real meaning behind Zakat.There are questions about Zakat which arose if you learn it from Mainstream Islam.
Why there is no exact rule of paying zakat(amount and form)in the quran ?
And why women have to pay Zakat(33:33)in the quran,whereas in orthodox Islam the male is responsible for every Family member to pay zakat?
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We find examples of giving zakat to the People by the prophets especialy Jesus gave Zakat his hole life.
2:129
""Our Lord! send amongst them a Messenger of their own who shall rehearse Thy Signs to them and instruct them in Scripture and Wisdom, and purify them; for Thou art the Exalted in Might the Wise." (129)"
3:164
"Allah did confer a great favour on the Believers when He sent among them an Messenger from among themselves, rehearsing unto them the Signs of Allah, sanctifying them, and instructing them in Scripture and Wisdom, while, before that, they had been in manifest error. (164)"
62:2
" It is He Who has sent amongst the Unlettered a messenger from among themselves, to rehearse to them His Signs, to sanctify them, and to instruct them in Scripture and Wisdom― although they had been, before, in manifest error― (2) As well as (to confer all these benefits upon) others of them, who"
19:19
"He said: "Nay, I am only a messenger from thy Lord (to announce) to thee the gift of a holy son." (19)"
19:31
""And He hath made me Blessed wheresoever I be, and hath enjoined on me Prayer and Charity as long as I live;
(31)"
The concept of zakat bound to Money alone is not found in the quran whereas we find Jesus as a beatiful example who gave Zakat by words.
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peace,
The concept of zakat bound to Money alone is not found in the quran
I just don't believe in the strict concept of paying of a amount of Money to the poor alone.It is more than that,it is something we had to practice regularly...
I agree. There is no clear verse stating such a thing, nor does the word "aataw" commonly occurring before "zakah" only mean "pay".
In my view "zakah" has a wider meaning, a subset of which can include giving in charity.
See various Classical Arabic dictionaries, e.g. here (http://www.studyquran.co.uk/PRLonline.htm):
Zay-Kaf-Waw = it increased/augmented, it throve/grew well/flourished/prospered and produced fruit, it was/became pure, purification, goodness/righteousness, lead/enjoy a plentiful/easy/soft/delicate life, put into a good/right state/condition, alms, poor-rate/due
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peace,
The concept of zakat bound to Money alone is not found in the quran
I just don't believe in the strict concept of paying of a amount of Money to the poor alone.It is more than that,it is something we had to practice regularly...
I agree. There is no clear verse stating such a thing, nor does the word "aataw" commonly occurring before "zakah" only mean "pay".
In my view "zakah" has a wider meaning, a subset of which can include giving in charity.
See various Classical Arabic dictionaries, e.g. here (http://www.studyquran.co.uk/PRLonline.htm):
Zay-Kaf-Waw = it increased/augmented, it throve/grew well/flourished/prospered and produced fruit, it was/became pure, purification, goodness/righteousness, lead/enjoy a plentiful/easy/soft/delicate life, put into a good/right state/condition, alms, poor-rate/due
Salam Wakas,
Yes i do also believe in a wider meaning,i have never heard about Jesus talking in the Gospel that it is obligatory to pay a certain amount to People as far as i remember.
Jesus was preaching "zakat"words and thus he was giving zakat and became zakat instead of those who preaches wrong and behold words to the People.
Sura 4:49
Hast thou not turned thy thought to those who claim purity for themselves? Nay,― but Allah doth sanctify whom He pleaseth But never will they fail to receive justice in the least little thing. (49)
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Zakaah per the pre-Islamic definition of the word in general means goodness, purity, growth and betterment. It DOES NOT means charity. The meaning of charity comes from the verse that says our saduqah purifies us. It is a theological fabricated meaning. Hence people started to defined charity as purity.
Measure one of ataa means to come as well as to do. Measure four and Measure three (those most associated with zakaat) are identical in form and conjugation, they mean (measure 2) to give, to bring, (meausre 3) to encourage, to agree with or be in alignment with, to encourage, agree with or being in alignment with in a good way (husnul-mutaawa3ah).
The only way to ascertain the meanings of the words used in the Quran is through Classical Arabic dictionaries. To say that one cannot obtain meanings from the these dictionaries for words use in the Quran defies logic.
Salam
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Salam Anwar,
The translations of the word "ataa" should be "measure one" like you quoted that gives an wider understanding for the Reader.
thats a better Translation:
"....establish regular prayer and do pure activities..."
One requirement to do zakat is to believe in the one god the hereafter and his messengers.
In the sura 18:79 we read that the Boy who is an unbliever is troubling his beliving parents so he should be replaced for a believing/zakat child
(٧٩) وَأَمَّا ٱلۡغُلَـٰمُ فَكَانَ أَبَوَاهُ مُؤۡمِنَيۡنِ فَخَشِينَآ أَن يُرۡهِقَهُمَا طُغۡيَـٰنً۬ا وَڪُفۡرً۬ا (٨٠) فَأَرَدۡنَآ أَن يُبۡدِلَهُمَا رَبُّہُمَا خَيۡرً۬ا مِّنۡهُ زَكَوٰةً۬ وَأَقۡرَبَ رُحۡمً۬ا (٨١)
It is an important subject we have to ponder on how to get pure and give purity to others.
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Deliverance,
It's not about 'should' it is about 'is' or 'is not.' 99 percent of the instances that I can think of where Zakaat is used the measures of the root ataa that are associated with it are measures 3 or 4. Zaakaat is purity, goodness, betterment and growth. So the child should be replaced with one that is better than him in these qualities if the word zakaatan is used, as it is. So in general we are being told to bring what is good, better, pure and growing as well as to encourage, to agree with and be in alignment with purity, goodness, betterment and growth.
Salam
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Anwar,
I agree it is only one vers i think where "zakat" is used with "mal"/Money but rest is mentioned together with salat.
Food can also be zakah
Sura 18:19
Such (being their state), We raised them up (from sleep), that they might question each other. Said one of them "How long have ye stayed (here)?" They said "We have stayed (perhaps) a day or part of a day." (At length) they (all) said "Allah (alone) knows best how long ye have stayed here...Now send ye then one of you with this money of yours to the town: let him find out which is the best food (to be had) and bring some to you, that (ye may satisfy hunger therewith:) and let him behave with care and courtesy, and let him not inform anyone about you. (19)
But is "zakah" food the same meaning with "halal" and "tayeb" food?
Sura 5:88
"Eat of that which Allah hath bestowed on you as food lawful and good, and keep your duty to Allah in Whom ye are believers. (88)"
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I want to add that proper behaviour is making you get "zakat"
Sura 24
"If ye find no one in the house enter not until permission is given to you: if ye are asked to go back, go back: that makes for greater purity for yourselves: and Allah knows well all that ye do. (28) It is no fault on your part to enter houses not used for living in, which serve some (other) use for you: and Allah has knowledge of what ye reveal and what ye conceal. (29) Say to the believing men that they should lower their gaze and guard their modesty: that will make for greater purity for them: and Allah is well acquainted with all that they do. (30)"
The easiest form is to give some of your income to People,that is what the average muslims do and understand in giving "zakat"once a year and in "ramadhan" to give zakat al-fitr to have their fasting excepted.But the real zakat is not to follow the footsteps of the evil and put a burden on you Soul.Thus by doing zakat you pure your Soul and you can enter the Garden in the hereafter.
Sura 20
" Verily he who comes to his Lord as a sinner (at judgment)― for him is Hell: therein shall he neither die nor live. (74) But such as comes to Him as Believers who have worked righteous deeds--for them are ranks exalted― (75) Gardens of Eternity, beneath which flow rivers: they will dwell therein for aye: such is the reward of those who purify themselves (from evil). (76)"
Regards
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The only way to ascertain the meanings of the words used in the Quran is through Classical Arabic dictionaries. To say that one cannot obtain meanings from the these dictionaries for words use in the Quran defies logic.
Salam
I really respect this statement!!!! thank you for saying this.
On page 1241 of the lanes lexicon who seems to quote other old Arabic authorities says:
>>>this is the only instance in the Kur-An in which it is used in any other sense than that which next follows. ...And [The poor-rate;] the portion,or amount, of property, that is given therefrom, (M, IAth, Mgh, Mvb, ], Er-Rsghib, TA,) as the due of God, (Er-R&ghib, TA,) by its possessor, (M, V, TA,) to the poor, (M, Mgh, Er-Rbghib, TA,) in order that he may purify it thereby: (M, IAth, g, TA:) [in the g it is merely said that " the 'zakah'j of property is well known :" the giving it is obligatory, provided that the property is of a certain amount>>>
I got this from a link here ....http://www.studyquran.co.uk/PRLonline.htm
Now this is from a classical lexicon and fits in the Qur'an. The dictionaries speak of it as being an increase on wealth or property so this is also not a problem definition.
Just because a rate is not given by the Qur'an doesn't mean the definition of zakat is wrong. It may be that Allah (swt) doesn't want one rate to fit all circumstances and has left it to people who are in power or government to decide an appropriate rate. This is what the article also spoke about.
So my q is why should this definition be denied when it is in the classical lexicons and fits the Qur'an. Why deny this and pick another simply because we don't like this definition???? Why?? Saba
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Noone is saying that the Definition of "zakah" is wrong,i only say focusing on paying a certain amount of wealth and labeling it with "zakah" is not the proper meaning of zakah.
Quote from Saba:
"Just because a rate is not given by the Qur'an doesn't mean the definition of zakat is wrong. It may be that Allah (swt) doesn't want one rate to fit all circumstances and has left it to people who are in power or government to decide an appropriate rate. This is what the article also spoke about."
In my humble opinion is not left for People in power to decide what is to pay for zakah because in the the Quran it is said that Allah is making someone "zakah" or not.You have to do it for seeking the pleasure of God and not by force.
In Aramaic zakuh is a verb and means ,to be pure;good;innocently;
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My comment was not directed at you (Deliverance) and I have already mentioned that I do not want to talk to you about this topic. So please can you stop talking to me directly about this.
As far as your comment is concerned:
In my humble opinion is not left for People in power to decide what is to pay for zakah because in the the Quran it is said that Allah is making someone "zakah" or not.You have to do it for seeking the pleasure of God and not by force.
Read 22:41
"(They are) those who, if We establish them in the land, establish regular prayer and give regular charity, enjoin the right and forbid wrong: with Allah rests the end (and decision) of (all) affairs. "
Like I said, please don't talk to me directly about your views or opinions on my comments. I'm sure its against one of the QM's forum policy if someone has requested not to continue dialogue.... I am happy to hear from anyone else about my comments however. Thanx, Saba
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Alright Saba i leave you alone.
salam aleikoum
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Deliverance.
The word used in 18:19 is azkaa. It is the superlative of zakeey or zakeeyah, which means good or pure. It means more pure or most pure. Like Akbar is the superlative of kabeer, meaning most kabeer or more kabeer (kabeer has so many meanings I am deciding not to translate all them in order to be fair to the word). Zakaah is not used in 18:19.
Saba,
I have a lot of issues with Lane's lexicon, but I won't go there because for general purposes and when better is not available it is fine. I generally refer to Lisanul-Arab and other completely Arabic lexicons which are older and more comprehensive than Lane's lexicon can ever be. Why he didn't just translate Taj Al-'Arous or Lisanul-Arab is beyond me.
What you are not realizing here is that Zakaah as charity clearly has its origin in post-Quranic Islamic opinion. This is where Lane fails and where earlier and more authoritative Classical Arabic lexicons succeed, as they are interested in Classical Arabic as a whole, and in detailing what is post-Quranic and Islamic and what is not, many times even referring to the pre-islamic poetries to show meanings that some meanings were clearly used in pre-Islamic times but generally fell out of use after the Quran. Take Mu'jam Al-faadh Al-Quran's comment that raaki3 also had a meaning of monotheist and one who did not worship idols among the pre-islamic Arabs. Lane's sources on many words are clearly Islamic and not linguistic in nature.
This means that anything clearly Islamic in origin, i.e., post-Quranic cannot be read into the Quran because the Quran's language is naturally pre-Islamic and pre-Quranic in origin as it borrowed the language of the pre-Islamic and pre-Quranic Arabs. Again, this means that ANY meaning of a word with an Islamic and post-Quranic origin cannot be read into the Qur'an.
Lisanul-Arab first has Zakaah as righteousness/correctness (Al-Salaa7) and has Az-zakaah as zakaatul-maal, i.e. zakaah as zakaah of the wealth (this is already logically problematic). He goes on to say that this is known and that it is purification (tat-heer) of one's wealth. He adds that it is "what you take out from your wealth in order to purify it." I don't know if you see the logical flaws here but the first is in explaining al-zakaah using the same word again, and stating that it is zakaah of one's wealth, which is then explained as purifying one's wealth. This already intimates that Zakaah as purity is the stronger and more original meaning.
It also begs questions such as did the pre-Islamic Arabs have a concept of purifying wealth or setting aside some of one's wealth in order to purify it? And is this even a Quranically valid concept? Does the wealth we earn morally and within Quranic guidelines need to be purified?
What is mentioned next is a partial phrase from 9:103.
خذ من أموالهم صدقة تطهرهم و تزكيهم بها و صلي عليهم إن صلاتك سكن لهم و الله سميع عليم
"Take, [O, Muhammad], from their wealth a charity by which you purify them and cause them increase, and invoke [ Allah 's blessings] upon them. Indeed, your invocations are reassurance for them. And Allah is Hearing and Knowing."
The part that is mentioned is و تزكيهم بها " wa tuzakkeehim bihaa "
It says that they say this means تُطهِّرُهم tutahhiruhum: it purifies them
Tutahhiruhum is actually mentioned just previous to 'wa tuzakeehim' in the above passage. In my opinion understanding tazkiyah as tat-heer in THIS PARTICULAR context would be a little too redundant. I would use some of its other meaning which we will see below.
Then it says that Zakaah means صفوةُ الشيء which is 'the purity of a thing.
Zakaah is afterwards again defined as righteous or correct acts i.e. العمل الصالح
Then we have another explanation for what is taken out for the poor being part of their rights (min huqooqihim), or what they are entitled to (the use of rights here is a dead give away that this is a shar'iah or pos-Quranic Islamic opinion) being called Zakaah because it purifies the wealth, makes it produce, is a form of making things right/correct, i.e. rectification and is a form of growth. The original statement is below:
قيل لما يُخْرَج من المال للمساكين من حقوقهم زَكاةٌ لأَنه تطهيرٌ للمال وتَثْميرٌ وإِصْلاحٌ ونماء،
The nail in the coffin is this statement:
وأَصل الزكاة في اللغة الطهارة والنَّماء والبَركةُ والمَدْح وكله قد استعمل في القرآن والحديث
"The original meaning of Zakaah in the Classical Arabic language is purity, growth, blessing and commendation/praise/acclaim."
This is also essentially the first sentence in Mu'jam Al-faadh Al-Quran
It says that "the original meaning of Zakaah is growth that attains God's blessing and is used with worldly affairs and afterworldly affairs. It is said that what was planted zakaa (past tense, singular masculine) and yazkoo (present tense, singular, masculine) if it attains growth and blessing. And the verse that says أيها ازكا طعاما ('Ayyuhaa azkaa ta3aaman i.e 'which is better to eat.' Here azkaa is the superlative of zakeey) and indicates what is lawful and has no unwholesome consequences. From this comes Zakaah as what men owe to God for the poor and it is called this because it is seeking blessing or purification of the soul or its growth with what is good and with blessings."
Both Lisanul-Arab and Mu'jam Al-faadh Al-Quran state that the original meaning of the word in Classical Arabic is growth, purity, blessing and praise (only Lisanul-Arab says praise). Additionally they use Al-Zakaah as charity in connection to the rights (huqooq) of those in need and what we owe to God (literally the rights of God, haqqullah) making this meaning clearly Islamic and therefore post-Quranically theological in meaning.
Zakaah as charity is in essence a post-Quranic, Islamic nickname for charity (saduqah/sadaqah) because of how it implies growth for others and for our souls, because it is good, productive, purifies us and brings God's blessing on us.
The reasons for Zakaah being taken as a nickname for charity can be found in 9:103 where sadaqah is said to be tazkiyah for us; zakaah (purity) and tazkiyah (purification) being essentially interchangeable. I'm sure in a number of hadeeth which also have been taken as a basis for nicknaming sadaqah Zakaah.
I hope this has helped.
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Thank you for your post Anwar,
As i posted previously "zakah" was used by Prophets of old like Abbraham so it is not just an islamic usage.
Sura 2"
And remember We took a covenant from the children of Israel (to this effect): worship none but Allah; treat with kindness your parents and kindred, and orphans and those in need; speak fair to the people; be steadfast in prayer; and give Zakat. then did ye turn back except a few among you, and ye backslide (even now). (83)
Thats why it is found in other semetic languages as purity
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Alright Saba i leave you alone.
salam aleikoum
Thanx Deliverance for agreeing with my request.
Salaam Anwar
Don't take this wrong but I really don't share your criticisms of Edward Lane's work. If you read his preface, he goes into great detail and tells you what his work contains and he uses many authorities including the TA and the Lisan. I don't know what your agenda against this work is but that isn't really my concern.
http://www.studyquran.org/LaneLexicon/Volume1/00000032.pdf
http://www.studyquran.org/LaneLexicon/Volume1/00000031.pdf
He provides references and yes, those that want to look deeper can access the authorities he references.
Saba
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Deliverance,
I'm not sure I fully understand what you posted. The Quran is using the Classical Arabic term Zakaah. We have no evidence that this is the actual word used by Abraham (God bless and keep him) in his native language but we know that whatever words he used he communicated what the Quran is communicating. To review other Semitic languages on this point is irrelevant because we are only dealing with Classical Arabic. What we are trying to figure out is what is meant by Zakaah and the phrase Eetaa'uz-zakaah. I did my best to show you what is meant through some authentic and authoritative sources on the language. It is a predictable linguistic occurrence that the root would have a similar meaning in related languages. But it would be wrong for me to define Italian words using Spanish or Portuguese words using Romanian. I hope I have been efficient at demonstrating the principal and original Classical Arabic meaning of Zakaah as purity, goodness, growth, blessing and acclaim/praise.
Salam.
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Anwar and Saba
This is your final warning and if you both continue with personal jibes in contravention of this forum's policy, you will be banned. No further warnings will be given. Comments of a personal nature which have no relevance to the content of the thread have been removed from the last few posts.
No one is forcing either of you to write on this forum. Respect this forum's policy and the expected level of conversation etiquettes. If you cannot adhere to the forum policy, please go and post your thoughts some place else.
No further warnings will be given to either of you!
Thanks!
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Lisanul-Arab first has Zakaah as righteousness/correctness (Al-Salaa7) and has Az-zakaah as zakaatul-maal, i.e. zakaah as zakaah of the wealth (this is already logically problematic). He goes on to say that this is known and that it is purification (tat-heer) of one's wealth. He adds that it is "what you take out from your wealth in order to purify it." I don't know if you see the logical flaws here but the first is in explaining al-zakaah using the same word again, and stating that it is zakaah of one's wealth, which is then explained as purifying one's wealth. This already intimates that Zakaah as purity is the stronger and more original meaning.
It also begs questions such as did the pre-Islamic Arabs have a concept of purifying wealth or setting aside some of one's wealth in order to purify it? And is this even a Quranically valid concept? Does the wealth we earn morally and within Quranic guidelines need to be purified?
What is mentioned next is a partial phrase from 9:103.
خذ من أموالهم صدقة تطهرهم و تزكيهم بها و صلي عليهم إن صلاتك سكن لهم و الله سميع عليم
"Take, [O, Muhammad], from their wealth a charity by which you purify them and cause them increase, and invoke [ Allah 's blessings] upon them. Indeed, your invocations are reassurance for them. And Allah is Hearing and Knowing."
The part that is mentioned is و تزكيهم بها " wa tuzakkeehim bihaa "
It says that they say this means تُطهِّرُهم tutahhiruhum: it purifies them
Tutahhiruhum is actually mentioned just previous to 'wa tuzakeehim' in the above passage. In my opinion understanding tazkiyah as tat-heer in THIS PARTICULAR context would be a little too redundant. I would use some of its other meaning which we will see below.
Then it says that Zakaah means صفوةُ الشيء which is 'the purity of a thing.
Zakaah is afterwards again defined as righteous or correct acts i.e. العمل الصالح
Then we have another explanation for what is taken out for the poor being part of their rights (min huqooqihim), or what they are entitled to (the use of rights here is a dead give away that this is a shar'iah or pos-Quranic Islamic opinion) being called Zakaah because it purifies the wealth, makes it produce, is a form of making things right/correct, i.e. rectification and is a form of growth. The original statement is below:
قيل لما يُخْرَج من المال للمساكين من حقوقهم زَكاةٌ لأَنه تطهيرٌ للمال وتَثْميرٌ وإِصْلاحٌ ونماء،
The nail in the coffin is this statement:
وأَصل الزكاة في اللغة الطهارة والنَّماء والبَركةُ والمَدْح وكله قد استعمل في القرآن والحديث
"The original meaning of Zakaah in the Classical Arabic language is purity, growth, blessing and commendation/praise/acclaim."
This is also essentially the first sentence in Mu'jam Al-faadh Al-Quran
It says that "the original meaning of Zakaah is growth that attains God's blessing and is used with worldly affairs and afterworldly affairs. It is said that what was planted zakaa (past tense, singular masculine) and yazkoo (present tense, singular, masculine) if it attains growth and blessing. And the verse that says أيها ازكا طعاما ('Ayyuhaa azkaa ta3aaman i.e 'which is better to eat.' Here azkaa is the superlative of zakeey) and indicates what is lawful and has no unwholesome consequences. From this comes Zakaah as what men owe to God for the poor and it is called this because it is seeking blessing or purification of the soul or its growth with what is good and with blessings."
Both Lisanul-Arab and Mu'jam Al-faadh Al-Quran state that the original meaning of the word in Classical Arabic is growth, purity, blessing and praise (only Lisanul-Arab says praise). Additionally they use Al-Zakaah as charity in connection to the rights (huqooq) of those in need and what we owe to God (literally the rights of God, haqqullah) making this meaning clearly Islamic and therefore post-Quranically theological in meaning.
Zakaah as charity is in essence a post-Quranic, Islamic nickname for charity (saduqah/sadaqah) because of how it implies growth for others and for our souls, because it is good, productive, purifies us and brings God's blessing on us.
The reasons for Zakaah being taken as a nickname for charity can be found in 9:103 where sadaqah is said to be tazkiyah for us; zakaah (purity) and tazkiyah (purification) being essentially interchangeable. I'm sure in a number of hadeeth which also have been taken as a basis for nicknaming sadaqah Zakaah.
I hope this has helped.
Thanks for the classical arabic dictionary information.