QM Forum
The Quran => General Discussions => Topic started by: Lobotomize94 on May 01, 2020, 05:43:30 PM
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Quran 2:62 and Quran 5:69 are interpreted in English as being in the past tense. "those who believed"
Is the Arabic actually in the past tense, or is it in the present tense or is there no tense being shown at all?
If both of the above are true, then this is in direct contradiction to Quran:
[Quran 48:13] And whoever has not believed in Allah and His Messenger - then indeed, We have prepared for the disbelievers a Blaze.
This verse makes it clear that you must believe in Allah and the prophet Muhammad, otherwise you are a disbeliever.
So is Quran 2:62 and 5:69 actually in past tense (or is no tense being specified) as far as Arabic grammar? Especially 5:69. The context of 2:62 fits with the past tense, but what about Quran 5:69?
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Few points:
2:62 and 5:69 are in the perfect/past tense, see http://corpus.quran.com/
48:13 is linked to previous verses, check context
you have changed "His messenger" into "prophet Muhammad". Are they the same (https://free-minds.org/forum/index.php?topic=9598901)?
Ponder.
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Dear Lobotomize94
The Quran acknowledges that there were believers in many periods of history before Prophet Muhammed. (Ex: Followers of Prophet Abraham, Prophet Johah & Prophet Moses).
But now, Prophet Muhammed is the last and final messenger. So our belief cannot be complete without believing in him and his message.
If what I have written is not clear, please tell me to elaborate.
Best Regards,
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Few points:
2:62 and 5:69 are in the perfect/past tense, see http://corpus.quran.com/
I looked at Quran 5:69 http://corpus.quran.com/wordbyword.jsp?chapter=5&verse=69 (http://corpus.quran.com/wordbyword.jsp?chapter=5&verse=69)
I don't see the word "past tense" at all in there. My understanding of Arabic is very very limited, if you are a native speaker, can you break down what makes the word "believe" into "believed" in Arabic? Also what makes it say "and those who were Jews or Sabeans or Christians" rather than "those who "ARE" jews or Sabeans or Christians"
I guess what I'm asking is, how do you know it is past tense? What part of the Arabic tells you that specifically. Like for example "were" in English simply is past tense "are" is present tense. In Arabic, what is that in this verse?
48:13 is linked to previous verses, check context
you have changed "His messenger" into "prophet Muhammad". Are they the same (https://free-minds.org/forum/index.php?topic=9598901)?
I have to say that I disagree with this. While Quran 48:13 in context talks about the Jews/Christians at the time of the prophet and then starts by saying [paraphrasing] "whoever disbelieves in Allah and his messenger is a disbeliever"
"His messenger" = prophet Muhammad. This is singular, not plural. So this is talking about a specific prophet, not all the other prophets specifically. This specific prophet is Prophet Muhammad (which you also understand from reading the context).
What do you think?
Also Quran chapter 98:1-2 makes it clear that the disbelievers must believe this Prophet (singular, not plural) is a prophet of Allah and Quran 98:6 says those among the people of the book and polytheists who disbelieve will be punished.
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Dear Lobotomize94
The Quran acknowledges that there were believers in many periods of history before Prophet Muhammed. (Ex: Followers of Prophet Abraham, Prophet Johah & Prophet Moses).
But now, Prophet Muhammed is the last and final messenger. So our belief cannot be complete without believing in him and his message.
If what I have written is not clear, please tell me to elaborate.
Best Regards,
Hello I see that your name is Ahmad. Perhaps you are a native Arabic speaker. I'm a convert and don't really speak that much Arabic.
So I ask that if you are a native speaker, can you show me why in Quran 5:69 --what part of the Arabic makes the word "believe" past tense. Can you go over that word for word in Arabic?
The translation is: and those [before Him] who were Jews or Sabeans or Christians. What part of the Arabic specifically refers to the Jews/Sabeans/Christians in the past tense?
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Dear Lobotomize,
I have tried to explain it to the best of my abilities. But maybe other members can comment if they see something wrong.
Please note that I have highlighted the corresponding words with the same colors.
[5:69] Saheeh International
Indeed, those who have believed [in Prophet Muhammad] and those [before Him] who were Jews or Sabeans or Christians - those [among them] who believed in Allah and the Last Day and did righteousness - no fear will there be concerning them, nor will they grieve.
إِنَّ الَّذِينَ آمَنُوا وَالَّذِينَ هَادُوا وَالصَّابِئُونَ وَالنَّصَارَىٰ مَنْ آمَنَ بِاللَّهِ وَالْيَوْمِ الْآخِرِ وَعَمِلَ صَالِحًا فَلَا خَوْفٌ عَلَيْهِمْ وَلَا هُمْ يَحْزَنُونَ - 5:69
[5:69] Transliteration
Inna allatheena amanoo waallatheena hadoo waalssabioona waalnnasara man amana biAllahi waalyawmi alakhiri waAAamila salihan fala khawfun AAalayhim wala hum yahzanoona
amanoo Is a verb in the past tense that refers to those what have believed.
hadoo Is a verb in the past tense that refers to the jews. It roughly means those who have turned back to God. We can see a similar term used in 7:156
وَاكْتُبْ لَنَا فِي هَٰذِهِ الدُّنْيَا حَسَنَةً وَفِي الْآخِرَةِ إِنَّا هُدْنَا إِلَيْكَ ۚ قَالَ عَذَابِي أُصِيبُ بِهِ مَنْ أَشَاءُ ۖ وَرَحْمَتِي وَسِعَتْ كُلَّ شَيْءٍ ۚ فَسَأَكْتُبُهَا لِلَّذِينَ يَتَّقُونَ وَيُؤْتُونَ الزَّكَاةَ وَالَّذِينَ هُم بِآيَاتِنَا يُؤْمِنُونَ - 7:156
[7:156] Transliteration
Waoktub lana fee hathihi alddunya hasanatan wafee alakhirati inna hudna ilayka qala AAathabee oseebu bihi man ashao warahmatee wasiAAat kulla shayin fasaaktubuha lillatheena yattaqoona wayutoona alzzakata waallatheena hum biayatina yuminoona
[5:69] Saheeh International
And decree for us in this world [that which is] good and [also] in the Hereafter; indeed, we have turned back to You." [ Allah ] said, "My punishment - I afflict with it whom I will, but My mercy encompasses all things." So I will decree it [especially] for those who fear Me and give zakah and those who believe in Our verses -
If amanoo(those who have believed ) were in the present tense it would have been in the following form
[2:4] Qarai
and who believe in what has been sent down to you and what was sent down before you, and are certain of the Hereafter.
وَالَّذِينَ يُؤْمِنُونَ بِمَا أُنزِلَ إِلَيْكَ وَمَا أُنزِلَ مِن قَبْلِكَ وَبِالْآخِرَةِ هُمْ يُوقِنُونَ - 2:4
[2:4] Transliteration
Waallatheena yuminoona bima onzila ilayka wama onzila min qablika wabialakhirati hum yooqinoona
I hope this helps in a small way
Best regards,
Ahmad
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Please note that the word hudna used in 7:156 is also a verb in the past tense.
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Thank you very much, that explains it well!
Can I ask another question about Arabic?
In English, we use the conjunction "and" as well as "or" when we are referencing two sentences connected to each other. Does this hold true in the Quran as well?
For example, in Quran 2:79, Wiki-Islam said it is only referring to the uneducated Jews in Quran 2:78, BUT Quran 2:78 exists in conjunction with previous verses talking about even educated jews corrupting the scripture. So doesn't that mean Quran 2:79 is talking about the whole thing and not just the verse immediately before it?
In English, if I say [The knowledgeable jews corrupted the scripture, AND, some knowledgeable ones corrupted the scripture, so woe to those who write the scripture with their own hands.]--in English, if I said that, the "so woe to those" is referencing BOTH of the statements before it because they were connected by "And". Is this also true in Arabic? Are we necessarily obligated to believe that Quran 2:79 only references Quran 2:78 and not the subject in general of the previous verses that were connected by the conjunction "and"?
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On the corpus website it tells you the grammar of each word and you can click on the word if you want to examine its usage in Quran.
Further, this website will help as it lists all the times it is used in the perfect separately and imperfect separately:
http://www.studyquran.co.uk/PRLonline.htm
Re: 48:13
I have to say that I disagree with this. While Quran 48:13 in context talks about the Jews/Christians at the time of the prophet and then starts by saying [paraphrasing] "whoever disbelieves in Allah and his messenger is a disbeliever"
The verse begins with "wa" / "and".
"His messenger" = prophet Muhammad. This is singular, not plural. So this is talking about a specific prophet, not all the other prophets specifically. This specific prophet is Prophet Muhammad (which you also understand from reading the context).
What do you think?
Did you read the link I provided? I am not talking about which messenger it is. I am talking about the difference in role words, i.e. between prophet and messenger.
Also Quran chapter 98:1-2 makes it clear that the disbelievers must believe this Prophet (singular, not plural) is a prophet of Allah and Quran 98:6 says those among the people of the book and polytheists who disbelieve will be punished.
Those verses dont use "nabi" / "prophet".
Also bear in mind wiki-islam focuses on critique of islam, as stated on its about page.
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The verse begins with "wa" / "and".
On Quran 48:13
Yes I know. We do this all the time in the English language. Take this for example:
"Those gang members in the United States have committed heinous acts of violence, rape and murder. They were brought down to justice. And anyone who breaks the law will experience the full extent of the justice."
So you see, I made a general statement after that sentence using the conjunction "and"/"wa" even though gang members was the context. The word "anyone" makes it a general statement.
More importantly, in that verse uses warasūlihi which is singular. Its not talking about some other messenger, this is talking about the prophet Muhammad. The context of this verse is also the polytheists contemporaneous with the prophet Muhammad. So this verse is also including them, it says "anyone who disbelieves in Allah and his messenger".
That means if the polytheists become Christians or Jews, it doesn't count. They must become Muslims believing in Allah and Muhammad. And this verse is a generalization (as I discussed above) so it applies to everyone: you must believe (yu'min--not past tense) in Allah and his Messenger. It didn't say "messengers", it said messenger, meaning it is referencing one specifically.
Did you read the link I provided? I am not talking about which messenger it is. I am talking about the difference in role words, i.e. between prophet and messenger.
Is prophet Muhammad not both a prophet and a messenger? It is very clear that 48:13 is referencing Muhammad. In the context of it, the very verse before it is in reference to Muhammad, and in Quran 48:8-9 it is clearly referencing Muhammad.
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If you feel it is irrelevant which word Quran used i.e. messenger or prophet, then that's up to you.
They must become Muslims believing in Allah and Muhammad.
An article you might find interesting:
https://www.free-minds.org/mumins
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@ Wakas,
1. I feel like you are trying to find ambiguity in an unambiguous verse. In context, the verses surrounding 48:13 are talking about those contemporaneous with the prophet. Even more, this verse is in the present tense (not past tense) which again shoots down and interpretation that this verse is referring to a previous prophet. It is about a subject contemporaneous with the prophet, it is in the present tense I'm not sure how much evidence you need about this verse.
2. Many times the Prophet Muhammad is also referred to as "rasool". The prophet is both a "rasool" and a "Nabi". You also need to address why this verse is about a singular tense--that is a singular prophet and it is in the present tense.
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Dear Lobotomize,
In English, if I say [The knowledgeable jews corrupted the scripture, AND, some knowledgeable ones corrupted the scripture, so woe to those who write the scripture with their own hands.]--in English, if I said that, the "so woe to those" is referencing BOTH of the statements before it because they were connected by "And". Is this also true in Arabic? Are we necessarily obligated to believe that Quran 2:79 only references Quran 2:78 and not the subject in general of the previous verses that were connected by the conjunction "and"?
I don't think I can directly answer your question with a sound grammatical argument because its not an area of strenght for me. But I can share some advice I try to follow myself. It's also the same advice shared by brother Joseph.
One should not build a theological position on unclear evidence or evidence that contains a degree of ambiguity. In other words, one should only use Muhkam/Qualified verses/ parts of verses [3:7] to build arguments. When I personally see an argument that can be easily tipped to either side of the table by adding or removing evidences. I try to abort the discussion. And rely on clear matters instead.
In the case of 2:79-78.
The clearest point one can posit which is also hard to argue against is that "writing the scripture with their own hands" is attributed to a group of the jewish community due to its immediate context with the preceding verses. However, it's less clear who exactly is responsible. Of course one might develop arguments (linguistic or otherwise) to support their position. But I believe its best to just not seek elaboration where the Quran did not provide any.
And instead one might try to internalize the wisdom of the verse and reflect on how it applies to their own circumstances.
I understand that you were asking about linguistic rules of the Arabic language. Maybe other members can shed some light on them better than I can. However I just wanted to use this opportunity to share some humble thoughts.
Anyway good luck with your studies
And I wish you all the best.
Best Regards,
Ahmad.
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Dear Lobotomize,
In English, if I say [The knowledgeable jews corrupted the scripture, AND, some knowledgeable ones corrupted the scripture, so woe to those who write the scripture with their own hands.]--in English, if I said that, the "so woe to those" is referencing BOTH of the statements before it because they were connected by "And". Is this also true in Arabic? Are we necessarily obligated to believe that Quran 2:79 only references Quran 2:78 and not the subject in general of the previous verses that were connected by the conjunction "and"?
I don't think I can directly answer your question with a sound grammatical argument because its not an area of strenght for me. But I can share some advice I try to follow myself. It's also the same advice shared by brother Joseph.
One should not build a theological position on unclear evidence or evidence that contains a degree of ambiguity. In other words, one should only use Muhkam/Qualified verses/ parts of verses [3:7] to build arguments. When I personally see an argument that can be easily tipped to either side of the table by adding or removing evidences. I try to abort the discussion. And rely on clear matters instead.
In the case of 2:79-78.
The clearest point one can posit which is also hard to argue against is that "writing the scripture with their own hands" is attributed to at least a group of the jewish community due to its immediate context with the preceding verses. However, it's less clear who exactly is responsible. Of course one might develop arguments (linguistic or otherwise) to support their position. But I believe its best to just not seek elaboration where the Quran did not provide any.
And instead one might try to internalize the wisdom of the verse and reflect on how it applies to their own circumstances.
I understand that you were asking about linguistic rules of the Arabic language. Maybe other members can shed some light on them better than I can. However I just wanted to use this opportunity to share some humble thoughts.
Anyway good luck with your studies
And I wish you all the best.
Best Regards,
Ahmad.
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In the case of 2:79-78.
The clearest point one can posit which is also hard to argue against is that "writing the scripture with their own hands" is attributed to at least a group of the jewish community due to its immediate context with the preceding verses. However, it's less clear who exactly is responsible. Of course one might develop arguments (linguistic or otherwise) to support their position. But I believe its best to just not seek elaboration where the Quran did not provide any.
Hello Ahmad, thank you very much for your response. I do agree about 3:7 as well!
The reason I ask this questions is because the Quran says:
[Quran 4:157]: And [for] their saying, "Indeed, we have killed the Messiah, Jesus, the son of Mary, the messenger of Allah ." And they did not kill him, nor did they crucify him; but [another] was made to resemble him to them. And indeed, those who differ over it are in doubt about it. They have no knowledge of it except the following of assumption. And they did not kill him, for certain.
This is unambiguous. It is stating that Jesus was not crucified. Yet the new testament clearly says Jesus was crucified. So this is indirect evidence of God speaking to us telling us that the bible has been corrupted. If it weren't corrupted, it wouldn't have said that Jesus was crucified. So this seems like a clear cut piece of evidence that the bible was corrupted as Allah is helping us infer. What do you think?
Yet Quran 5:47 says:
[Quran 5:47]: And let the People of the Gospel judge by what Allah has revealed therein. And whoever does not judge by what Allah has revealed - then it is those who are the defiantly disobedient.
So we see here the in spite of the Gospel's corruption, there is still sufficient truth in there that the gospel contains some of what Allah revealed which should sufficiently lead to the conclusion that Islam is true. And the very next verse (Quran 5:48) says that the Quran is there to guard the previous scriptures. But if the previous scriptures were already guarded by Allah, then why was the Quran needed to guard them? So clearly, they weren't guarded by Allah, Allah left them to corrupt the scriptures, corruption ensued in them, and that is why Quran was needed to confirm and guard their original message.
We also see that Allah commanding people to judge by what was revealed of the Gospel they have is not necessarily a testament to its lack of corruption. The very next verse tells us this through inference.
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So what do you think about this?
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Dear Lobotomize,
Let me a share a subtle but profound insight that somebody taught me me a while ago.
Corresponding words are highlighted with the same color
[5:44]
Indeed, We sent down the Torah, in which was guidance and light. The prophets who submitted [to Allah] judged by it for the Jews, as did the rabbis and scholars by that with which they were entrusted of the Scripture of Allah, and they were witnesses thereto. So do not fear the people but fear Me, and do not exchange My verses for a small price. And whoever does not judge by what Allah has revealed - then it is those who are the disbelievers.
[5:44] Transliteration
Inna anzalna alttawrata feeha hudan wanoorun yahkumu biha alnnabiyyoona allatheena aslamoo lillatheena hadoo waalrrabbaniyyoona waalahbaru bima istuhfithoo min kitabi Allahi wakanoo AAalayhi shuhadaa fala takhshawoo alnnasa waikhshawni wala tashtaroo biayatee thamanan qaleelan waman lam yahkum bima anzala Allahu faolaika humu alkafiroona
إِنَّا أَنزَلْنَا التَّوْرَاةَ فِيهَا هُدًى وَنُورٌ ۚ يَحْكُمُ بِهَا النَّبِيُّونَ الَّذِينَ أَسْلَمُوا لِلَّذِينَ هَادُوا وَالرَّبَّانِيُّونَ وَالْأَحْبَارُ بِمَا اسْتُحْفِظُوا مِن كِتَابِ اللَّـهِ وَكَانُوا عَلَيْهِ شُهَدَاءَ ۚ فَلَا تَخْشَوُا النَّاسَ وَاخْشَوْنِ وَلَا تَشْتَرُوا بِآيَاتِي ثَمَنًا قَلِيلًا ۚ وَمَن لَّمْ يَحْكُم بِمَا أَنزَلَ اللَّـهُ فَأُولَـٰئِكَ هُمُ الْكَافِرُون
Let's contrast the verse above with the following one:
[15:9]
Indeed, it is We who sent down the Qur'an (Arabic = Zikr) and indeed, We will be its guardian
[15:9] Transliteration
Inna nahnu nazzalna alththikra wainna lahu lahafithoona
إِنَّا نَحْنُ نَزَّلْنَا الذِّكْرَ وَإِنَّا لَهُ لَحَافِظُونَ
If you have noticed, in both verses the highlighted word has the same root حفظ (H-F-Z).
In 5:44 the word used is اسْتُحْفِظُوا which means as translated above "to be entrusted".
In 15:9 the word used is لَحَافِظُونَ which means as translated above "We (Allah) will be its guardian"
In other words, when addressing the Torah the word اسْتُحْفِظُوا is used but when the Quran is being addressed the term used is لَحَافِظُونَ
I'm not ready to wholeheartedly draw a conclusion so I'll leave it you :) . I just wanted to point this out in the hopes that it may aid you in your study.
It's also generally very useful to search using roots.
You can use http://tanzil.net/ for Web
Or an app called Quran link for IOS.
And here is a sample search result using the root H-F-Z using Tanzil.
http://tanzil.net/#search/root/حفظ
(Copy and paste the link manually)
Hope this helps in a small way.
Best regards,
Ahmad.
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As always, thank you very much for your detailed response!
As far conclusions go, I'd say it is another inconclusive set of verses. 5:44 says that a portion of the Jews had the role of protecting the Torah, it did not say that they did it successfully. They were entrusted/commanded to be the protectors of the Torah, but elsewhere, the Quran indicates that previous scripture has been tampered with, that the Jews actually tried to distort their Torah etc. 5:44 says that the protection of the Torah was on Humans/Jews, 5:9 says that the protection of the Zikr was on God himself. That's a much bigger deal. Allah never said he would protect the written texts of the Torah.
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Asalamu 3alykum brother Lobotomize
I would like to share my humble opinion regarding some of your questions which I must say that I think it will also open up other topics as we go along which will lead to a long discussion. So I will try to make it as simple and short as I can and forgive me if I fade off trying to elaborate on other related topics at the same time.
Here is a verse you have shared.
48:13 And whoever has not believed in Allah and His Messenger - then indeed, We have prepared for the disbelievers a Blaze.
From what I understand or gathered of your inquiry is that Jews and Christians who do not believe in the veracity of the messenger Muhammad(pbuh) cannot be the Jews and Christians who are referred to in verses 2:62 and 5:69. So therefor those 2 verses must be in the past tense and cannot be in the present tense because it would shed tension on the verse above 48:13 since there is amongst Jews and Christians who presently do not believe in the messenger Muhammad.
So therefor to reconcile the three verses with each other one must read verses 2:62 and 5:69 in the past tense or its referring to the Jews and Christians who believe in the prophet Muhammad other wise it would be in conflict with verse 48:13.
I think first and foremost before going into detail about the verses mentioned, one must understand what a disbeliever is. Once that is acknowledged then I think the bigger picture regarding these verses can be drawn. Please see article below[1].
We must remember that when the Quran characterizes and exposes the disbelief in Jews and Christians, it is doing so to only certain specific ones. It also exposes the disbelief in Arabs as well 9:97-98. Which clearly does not mean all of the Arabs are disbelievers 9:99.
I find sometimes people fail to realize that the Quran was a live guidance to help aid the believers in a specific time and scenarios which had a set of specific circumstances. The Quran taught how to react and treat disbelieving Jews and Christian. Like some were not to be taken as friends etc. We should apply the same methods as the Quran teaches but it does not mean it will always be the same names and people.
Now the Jews and Christians that are spoken of clearly does not apply to all of them as verses like (3:113-114, 5:82-83, 7:159, 5:66, 3:75) verify that some are rightly guided. The Quran mention their names because the people who lived amongst the prophet Muhammad would of understood them and know exactly who the ones were, but to us today it would be to use the guidance and their names as an example.
Another evidence of the people who the Quran deals with is only time relevant to the prophet and his people is in verse 2:41. Also out of all humanity who were receiving the Quran at that time(God knows best their number and who many tribes), the Children of Israel were asked at that moment of time not to be the first to disbelieve which indicates there was a time period of reflection and a count down to who is going to show their disbelief first (2:41). This can possibly keep happening in the span of time over and over again. God knows best.
Verse 48:13 has a long context to it. The whole chapter is mainly regarding the Believers(mu'mins) and the Arabs who are living amongst the prophet Muhammad(pbuh).
After a victory for the prophet and the believers, God has exposed the hearts of those who stayed behind of the Arabs who did not go and help in fighting. Those people had assumed the prophet and the believers would never return back and also had evil thoughts which they harboured and therefor doubted and not truly believed in God and His messenger.
God had therefore cautioned them that for him who does not believe in God and His messenger, God has prepared a blaze for the disbelievers.
We need to look at the wisdom behind the verses, which acknowledge that its after the truth has been manifested one does indeed need to believe. These are warnings from God. No one is excused from this method. Not the people of the previous books or the people of the Quran.
What the Quran is manifesting, is that once truth has been made clear, which could be to any people at any time, then there is a time when humans must make their decision (7:34, 10:49, 13:7) . God knows best the time when truth has hit the peoples hearts and when they have believed or disbelieved.
So I do believe that the People of the Book who were living in the midst of the prophet and the ones The Almighty God has been speaking about in the Quran who heard the message clearly they were obligated to believe in the veracity of the messenger and the Quran. This is quite different though from Jews or Christians who never had the chance to read the Quran or even to give thought about it. There is also possibly in the time of the prophet also Jews or Christians who were so far away that they may of never heard the message. God knows best
I believe verse 2:62 and 5:69 is confirming to the readers or listeners of the Quran whether they lived in the time of the prophet or after him, be they Jews or Christians or believers of the final message(allatheena amanu) that who ever believes in God and the final day and does good deeds they shall not grieve nor shall they fear.
It really seems to be a refresher or confirmation to all those who have those attributes of belief that they shall not grieve or fear and seems to give that sense of comfort to keep their labels of Jews or Christians or those who believe. What it also seems to hint at, is that names or labels are not the concern, but its what is believed in the heart and that is what God looks for.
Although sometimes names are necessary in my opinion to distinguish certain people from others, but its what people do and how they act and believe which is the more important.
Another important point from the verses seems to indicate that the Jews and Christians who believe in the Quran and the messenger do not have to abandon their covenants and rites that was prescribed them. They were actually required to go back to their respective books in truth as you had clearly indicated 5:42-48.
It also seems to indicate to the believers of the Quran(allatheena amanu), that those Jews and Christians who are muslims(believe and God and the last day and do good) are like you in the sight of God and we are not to judge as they are branded in the same verses 2:62 and 5:69 with the Jews and Christians.
After all that has been said, the Quran is indeed the final Scripture given humanity which does claim to have the right over all others when faced with differences which in a way perseveres(muhaymin 5:48) the truth in other Scriptures . No one seems to be excused from believing in it after the truth has reached them.
But that does not mean that all of humanity will receive it at once or even ever (6:19).
6:19 Say, "What thing is greatest in testimony?" Say, " Allah is witness between me and you. And this Qur'an was revealed to me that I may warn you thereby and whomever it reaches. Do you [truly] testify that with Allah there are other deities?" Say, "I will not testify [with you]." Say, "Indeed, He is but one God, and indeed, I am free of what you associate [with Him]."
That being said, I think one can clearly see how the holy Quran has been used to trial humanity from the time it was revealed to possibly the time of the Hour if God wills.
It seems like it will continue if God wills to reach out to all those who say they are believers, Jews, Christians, Polytheists, Idolators, Atheists, etc.
Only God will know who have disbelieved from those who have believed.
Also regarding verse 5:44, it is helpful to read it with the surrounding verses. I do not think this verse is indicating that the Torah is perfectly protected but it seems to confirm to the prophet Muhammad that if he chooses not to give them(Jews) judgement, there is no blame on him, as they have their own scripture the Torah which the prophets judged the Jews and the Rabbis and the Priests also judged by it and they were obligated to protect and obverse(istuhfithoo). So despite the fabrication of the Jews which is verified in other verses, there is still guidance and light in the Torah, which one would come to believe it does not lead to misguidance or idolatry in the sight of God, when He the Lord is telling them to judge by it.
Salam
[1] UNDERSTANDING 'KUFR' (DISBELIEF) FROM A QURANIC PERSPECTIVE
http://quransmessage.com/articles/understanding%20kufr%20FM3.htm
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Peace Lobotomize94.
I see the context of 48:13 and the two verses 2:62 and 5:69 completely different.
48:13 is addressing the people in 48:11, a specific set of people who are neither Jews nor Christians. They are "Mukhallafun Mina Al Aarab" . a set of so called lip service believers that refuse to obey the command of the prophet to fight with the true believers and make excuses.. The same people that the prophet is asked to address in 48:16.
48:13 and 48:16 are saying the same thing. A warning to these people.
Often taking verses out of context from Qoran and connecting them with other verses of a different context gives problems.
Hope you do not mind me giving my understanding.
GOD bless you.
Peace.