QM Forum
The Quran => Q&As with Joseph Islam - Information Only => Topic started by: Reader Questions on July 26, 2012, 10:04:58 PM
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Salaamun Alaikum,
I have a question regarding 30:21 and how it can be used it to legitimize homosexuality.
Would like to hear your input on the word azwaja with it's classic, root and modern meaning :-) I look forward to hear your thoughts on this.
Wasalaams
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Salamun Alaikum,
The fundamental rule of Quranic interpretation is that unqualified verses need to be understood from qualified verses / concepts, i.e. the ‘implicit’ under the lens of the 'explicit'.
The only marriage institution recognised by the Quran by explicit verses is a marriage between man and woman (nikaah). There are numerous verses to prove this. So from a Quran’s perspective, it would be impossible for a homosexual relationship be legitimised when even a relationship between man and woman requires wedlock. (nikaah).
Two other explicit verses completely negate the question of legitimate homosexuality from a Quran’s perspective.
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"Indeed, you approach men lustfully (shahwatan) instead of women. Nay, you are a people transgressing beyond bounds (musrifun)"
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"Why do you approach men with lust (shahwatan) instead of women? Nay you are a people ignorant!"
As far as the indefinite masculine plural noun 'Azwaj' is concerned, it simply means companion / spouse / mate as is used depending on context. So in terms of human relationships of the kind, depending on who is being referenced, the opposite gender is assumed.
A man's companion would be his wife and a wife’s companion / spouse her husband. It is incredulous that anyone would use 30:21 and particularly the word 'azwaj', a well known context dependant word in Arabic, to legitimise homosexuality.
This is especially where there are 'explicit' references to negate this practice.
HOMOSEXUALITY
http://quransmessage.com/articles/homosexuality%20FM3.htm
I hope this helps, God willing,
Regards,
Joseph.