QM Forum
The Quran => Prophets and Messengers => Topic started by: DARahman on October 09, 2012, 08:15:04 AM
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Assalaamu Alaikum Brother Joseph,
I have a question regarding the return of Jesus (PBUH)
I have noted in your papers that you do not believe the qur’an supports the position for the return of Jesus (PBUH).
In your argument, I did not see where you addressed the following ayah:
4:159. And there is none from the People of the Scripture but that he will surely believe in him [i.e., Jesus] before his death. And on the Day of Resurrection he will be against them a witness.
If you did and I missed it please point me in that direction.
What is your understanding of this ayah? WHO will believe in Jesus (PBUH) before HIS death?
And what does “Believe in him” mean within the context of this ayah?
Salaam
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Salaam,
4:159. And there is none from the People of the Scripture but that he will surely believe in him [i.e., Jesus] before his death. And on the Day of Resurrection he will be against them a witness.
Jews did not believe him as the messenger of God and believed that they proved he was accursed per Deut. 21:23
His body shall not remain all night upon the tree, but you shall in any wise bury him that day; (for he that is hanged is accursed of God;) that your land be not defiled, which the LORD your God gives you for an inheritance.
Christians believed they got atonement from sins because he died on the cross.
Jew or Christian who comes to realize his false beliefs before his death maybe too late.
4:18 Forgiveness is not for those who continue to do evil deeds until, when death comes upon one of them, he says: Now I repent! nor from those who die as deniers of the truth. We have prepared a painful punishment for them.
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Thanks for that ayah reference.
The ayah I referenced:
4:159. And there is none from the People of the Scripture but that he will surely believe in him [i.e., Jesus] before his death. And on the Day of Resurrection he will be against them a witness.
Indicates that the Jews and Christians will believe in Jesus (PBUH) [properly] before either:
1. The Jew of Christian dies or;
2. Jesus (PBUH) dies.
Given that Jews and Christians die every day believing incorrectly in Jesus per the Qur'an, for this ayah to be true it could be understood that Jesus (PBUH) has not have died yet.
Thoughts?
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Assalaamu Alaikum Brother Joseph,
I have a question regarding the return of Jesus (PBUH)
I have noted in your papers that you do not believe the qur’an supports the position for the return of Jesus (PBUH).
In your argument, I did not see where you addressed the following ayah:
4:159. And there is none from the People of the Scripture but that he will surely believe in him [i.e., Jesus] before his death. And on the Day of Resurrection he will be against them a witness.
If you did and I missed it please point me in that direction.
What is your understanding of this ayah? WHO will believe in Jesus (PBUH) before HIS death?
And what does “Believe in him” mean within the context of this ayah?
Salaam
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Salaam,
Indicates that the Jews and Christians will believe in Jesus (PBUH) [properly] before either:
1. The Jew of Christian dies or;
2. Jesus (PBUH) dies.
Given that Jews and Christians die every day believing incorrectly in Jesus per the Qur'an, for this ayah to be true it could be understood that Jesus (PBUH) has not have died yet.
Thoughts?
Before the Jew or Christian dies. Jesus will be a witness against them.
5:116 When God says, Jesus, son of Mary, did you say to people, Take me and my mother as two deities besides God? He will answer, Glory be to You! How could I ever say that to which I have no right? If I had ever said so, You would surely have known it. You know what is in my mind, while I do not know anything that is within Yours. You alone are the knower of unseen things
5:117 I told them only what You commanded me to, Worship God, my Lord and your Lord. I was a witness to what they did as long as I remained among them, and when You did cause me to die, You were the watcher over them. You are the witness of all things,
3:50 I have come to confirm the truth of the Torah which preceded me, and to make some things lawful to you which used to be forbidden. I have come to you with a sign from your Lord. Be mindful of God, obey me:
These are my thoughts. Remember not all Christians are Trinitarian and many have already embraced the truth. I am sure brother Joseph will answer you as soon as he can
Peace
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Thank you Hope.
The ayah you quoted where Jesus (PBUH) witnesses against the Christians and Jews occur at during the period leading up to or at the Day of Judgement.
5:116. And [beware the Day] when Allah will say, "O Jesus, Son of Mary, did you say to the people, 'Take me and my mother as deities besides Allah?' " He will say, "Exalted are You! It was not for me to say that to which I have no right. If I had said it, You would have known it. You know what is within myself, and I do not know what is within Yourself. Indeed, it is You who is Knower of the unseen.
5:117. I said not to them except what You commanded me – to worship Allah, my Lord and your Lord. And I was a witness
over them as long as I was among them; but when You took me up, You were the Observer over them, and You are, over
all things, Witness.
Brother Joseph mentions this in his paper on the return of Jesus (PBUH)
Salaam
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Salaam DARahman
Please see Joseph's response to a similar question where he gives his view regarding verse 4:159.
I hope that helps. Thanks
http://quransmessage.com/forum/index.php?topic=523.msg1732#msg1732
Salamun Alaika Orange,
Thanks for your question and comments.
In evidence 4 of my article you have cited, you will have noted that the preceding verses 4:157-158 are discussed. The context of the discourse is a reference to a period of time during Prophet Jesus's ministry. Verse 4:159 is a continuation of verse 4:158 which is more than alluded to by the conjunction 'wa' (and). There is no break in the discourse or theme. (Not discussed in the article)
004:159
"AND (wa) there is not from the People of the Book ..."
From verse 4:159 it is clear that the reference is still to those who had been touched by Prophet Jesus's ministry and were given clear evidence of truth yet still denied him (4:157). They were not going to believe in him and what his ministry represented before his death. It is in this context that Prophet Jesus is also presented as a witness against them on the Day of Judgment 'yakuna alayhim shaidan'.
There would be no point of Prophet Jesus being presented as a witness against those who believed in the veracity of Prophet Jesus’s ministry. Therefore, the point of witness is against those who did not believe in the truth that was revealed to them and not those who did establish belief.
It is also important to remember in the context of the discourse that the People of the Book that are referred to are the Jews which is clear from verse 4:153 and not the Christians. These verses have nothing to do with the Christians (4:153ff).
The fact that Prophet Jesus will only be a witness against his people who witnessed his ministry is confirmed by another verse as well.
005:117
“…That worship God, my Lord and your Lord, and I was a witness over them as long as I was among them, but when you caused me to die (Arabic: Tawafaytani), you were the watcher over them, and you are witness of all things.”
The traditional position that makes use of verse 4:159 out of context to support Prophet Jesus’s second coming, arguably needs to provide unequivocal evidence from the Quran that:
- Verse 4:159 is a break in discourse and refers to another period of time.
- The audience of 4:159 has changed
- The audience includes Christians
- That this verse provides unequivocal support for Prophet Jesus's second coming.
I hope that helps, God willing.
Joseph.
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Thank you for reposting the information from the related dialogue.
I am still focused on the end game to Prophet Jesus (PBUH) mission.
The end game is this:
4:159. And there is none from the People of the Scripture but that he will surely believe in him [i.e., Jesus] before his death. And on the Day of Resurrection he will be against them a witness.
The way I read this, every single person among the People of the Book (I acknowledge your position that the People of the Book referred to here are the Jews that Jesus (PBUH) called to Al-Islam) will believe in Jesus (PBUH), presumably consistent with the Qur’an, before Jesus (PBUH) dies.
My question, according to your understanding, when does that happen? When, before Jesus (PBUH) dies, as Allah has revealed, do all the People of the Book believe in Jesus (PBUH)?
Salaam
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Peace DARahman.
As you will know, verse 4:159 is being narrated to an audience at the time of Prophet Muhammad who:
- Did not witness Prophet Jesus's ministry
- Had no explicit confirmation of Prophet Jesus's second coming from the Quran
A dialogue is being captured by the Quran of a people of a particular time of antiquity and 'during' Prophet Jesus's ministry who rebelled. This in my view is clear from the context before verse 4:159 and after it. Verse 4:159 refers to those of the People of the Book 'at the time of Prophet Jesus's ministry' (contemporaneous to him) who would have grasped the truth about the ministry of Prophet Jesus after the completion of his mission and before their demise. Prophet Jesus can only be a witness against his own people and indeed them. (4:41).
Therefore in my humble opinion, this verse is not referring to the People of the Book contemporaneous to Prophet Muhammad's ministry nor is it a reference to a future generation of people which would be meaningless to the primary audience of the Quran. This verse is referring to a people of Prophet Jesus's time. The part which is in a future context is the witness of Jesus against his people which will be actioned on the Day of Judgment.
I hope that clarifies from my humble perspective, God willing.
Regards,
Joseph.
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Peace Brother Joseph,
You wrote:
"This verse is referring to a people of Prophet Jesus's time."
Are you saying that all of the People of the Scirpture during Jesus' (PBuH) time believed in Jesus (PBUH) before each and everyone one of those people died?
4:159. And there is none from the People of the Scripture but that he will surely believe in him [i.e., Jesus] before his death. And on the Day of Resurrection he will be against them a witness.
Peace.
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Peace Brother Joseph,
Correction. I referred incorrectly to the death of the People of the Book. I should have referred to the Death of Jesus (PBUH). Here is a corrected post:
Peace Brother Joseph,
You wrote:
"This verse is referring to a people of Prophet Jesus's time."
Are you saying that all of the People of the Scirpture during Jesus' (PBuH) time believed in Jesus (PBUH) before Jesus (PBUH) died?
4:159. And there is none from the People of the Scripture but that he will surely believe in him [i.e., Jesus] before his death. And on the Day of Resurrection he will be against them a witness.
Peace.
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Dear DARahman,
Peace to you.
Are you saying that all of the People of the Scirpture during Jesus' (PBuH) time believed in Jesus (PBUH) before Jesus (PBUH) died?
No, please allow me to clarify.
I am respectfully asserting with the evidence that I have presented that all those that witnessed Prophet Jesus's ministry during their lives would realise during or at the moment of their death the truth of Prophet Jesus's prophethood. This is irrespective of when the prophetic ministry of Jesus ended. Those that witnessed yet outlived the ministry of Prophet Jesus, would come to know of the truth later in their lives or certainly at the point of their death. Please also see 23:98-100 where everyone, including disbelievers will come to recognise the truth at the point of their death.
Messengers are always chosen from amongst a people, who speak their language so as to make the message clear to them (14:4) and can only stand witness against their own people to whom they preached. This is a concept established in the Quran (4:41; 2:143, 22:78, 40:51).
Therefore in verse 4:159, Prophet Jesus can only stand as witness against a community he preached to. Given both the dialogue of the verses in question and the fact that Prophet Jesus can only stand witness against his own people (5:117), the people addressed who will realise the truth of the matter are those that were present during Prophet Jesus's ministry. This is the 'against them' (alayhim) that verse 4:159 refers to.
005.117
"Never said I to them aught except what You commanded me, that 'You worship God, my Lord and your Lord'; and I was a witness over them as long as I was amongst them; then when You caused me to die, You were the Watcher over them, and You are a witness to all things"
I hope that helps, God willing.
Joseph.
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Assalaamu Alaikum Brother Joe,
I did take a look at ayah 23:98 – 100.
23:98. And I seek refuge in You, my Lord, lest they be present with me."
23:99. [For such is the state of the disbelievers] until, when death comes to one of them, he says, "My Lord, send me back
23:100. That I might do righteousness in that which I left behind." No! It is only a word he is saying; and behind them is a barrier until the Day they are resurrected.
You are saying that these ayah refer to people at the point of death. It appears these ayah are referring to people that are already dead as they are in a state of Barzak.
Peace.
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Assalaamu Alaikum Brother Joe,
I did take a look at ayah 23:98 – 100.
23:98. And I seek refuge in You, my Lord, lest they be present with me."
23:99. [For such is the state of the disbelievers] until, when death comes to one of them, he says, "My Lord, send me back
23:100. That I might do righteousness in that which I left behind." No! It is only a word he is saying; and behind them is a barrier until the Day they are resurrected.
You are saying that these ayah refer to people at the point of death. It appears these ayah are referring to people that are already dead as they are in a state of Barzak.
Peace.
Dear brother DARahman,
Peace to you.
With my statement, "At the point of their death" I intend to clearly imply that a person has just died, which would of course mean that they have entered a state of Barzakh.
I hope that clarifies, God willing.
Regards,
Joseph
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Thank you Brother Joseph.
At this point, I have to conclude that an understanding by some Muslims that Jesus (PBUH) will return is reasonable given the ayah:
4:159. And there is none from the People of the Scripture but that he will surely believe in him [i.e., Jesus] before his death. And on the Day of Resurrection he will be against them a witness.
It is clear that there will be People of the Book that were contemporaries with Jesus (PBUH) that died believing incorrectly in Jesus (PBUH).
Therefore, based on the revelation, there must be a future time when as Allah has revealed, all the people of Jesus (PBUH) will believe in Jesus (PBUH) correctly before Jesus’ (PBUH) death.
Allah knows best.
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Dear brother DARahman,
Thank you for sharing your conclusion. Of course, I completely respect your right to your opinion. :)
So that I may, with respect, summarise our discussions and my understanding of them for the benefit of wider readers and to offer a conclusion to this thread, I understand that you feel that the belief of the second coming of Jesus is reasonable despite in my humble opinion that:
- Not one explicit reference in the entire Quran mentions Prophet Jesus's second coming
- Despite that explicit support for such a concept only exists in latter Islamic secondary sources even with objections raised by classical authorities
- Despite such a theological belief being challenged by verses 5:116-117 and Prophet Jesus's own testimony [1]
- Despite the mention of Prophet Jesus's death in clear terms 'tawaffu' which in the Quranic remit when applied to a soul signifies death [1]
- Despite the Quran making it clear that messengers are sent to their communities for a purpose to make God's messages clear to them in their languages (14:4) and a return of a previous messenger sent to a particular people (Children of Israel) would have no Quranic theological support. [2]
- Despite the lifecycle of Prophet Jesus being no different from any other messenger (19:33, 19:15) [1]
- Despite there being no mention of a second coming of Jesus given the comprehensive summary of Prophet Jesus's mission imparted by God Himself on the Day of Judgment (5:109-114) [1]
- Despite clear mention by the Quran that messengers before Prophet Muhammad had passed away (3:144, 5:75) [1]
- This again confirmed in 21.7-8; 21:34-35 [1]
- Despite the fact that a belief in the second coming of Jesus would challenge the explicit Quranic concept that no one has knowledge of the hour and that it could be imminent (33:63). (A second coming would invariably imply that Prophet Jesus would have to return before the Day of Judgement could ensue challenging 33:63) [1]
You feel, at this point, that on the basis of (in my opinion at best) an implicit verse 4:159, which we have discussed in this thread, you have concluded that the belief of some Muslims is reasonable.
I would have to respectfully, yet strongly disagree with your conclusion and I would (again respectfully) ask those readers who maintain belief in this concept to think about sourcing clear, evidence from the Quran that unequivocally states that Prophet Jesus will return. [3]. I would humbly feel it unreasonable the assertion that a mainstay of Muslim belief and doctrine cannot find one explicit statement from its sacred text to corroborate it.
Finally, I humbly feel that when implicit statements are used to establish a doctrine, theological incongruences arise. To support beliefs making use of isolated implicit statement of a sacred text is not a modus operandi of just the Muslim masses but is a well-trodden method even from those of previous revelations. One only has to note the implicit statements that are made use of by Christian theologians to support the doctrine of Trinity from the Bible.
Thank you for your post. Once again let me reiterate that I truly respect your right to your opinion. We can only offer our best evidence with a view to share our perspectives. :)
In the end, only God knows best.
With utmost respect,
Joseph.
REFERENCES
[1] IS THE SECOND COMING OF PROPHET JESUS (pbuh) SUPPORTED BY THE QURAN?
http://quransmessage.com/articles/is%20second%20coming%20attested%20by%20the%20quran%20FM3.htm
[2] WAS PROPHET JESUS (pbuh) SENT TO THE GENTILES?
http://quransmessage.com/articles/jesus%20ministry%20FM3.htm
[3] BURDEN OF PROOF - PROPHET ABRAHAM'S (pbuh) ARGUMENT
http://quransmessage.com/articles/burdenofproof%20FM3.htm
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Peace Brother Joseph,
Thank for the summary. I have stated before how much I respect your scholarship and the Islamic standard for discussion that you uphold.
One question I don't think we discussed during this discussion. Is there an explicit ayah in the Qur'an that pinpoints when Jesus (PBUH) died?
Peace
Dawud
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Dear brother DARahman
Peace to you.
My sincerest apologies if I misunderstood. I had assumed as per your comment in your opening post "I have noted in your papers that you do not believe the qur’an supports the position for the return of Jesus (PBUH)", that you were conversant with my perspective on the explicit statement "tawaffa" found in the Quran when referring to Prophet Jesus's death from my article [1] (Evidence 2)
Also, I have humbly shared my views on this explicit statement by the Quran referring to Prophet Jesus's death in another thread which you may find of interest.
http://quransmessage.com/forum/index.php?topic=604.0
When the verb 'tawaffa' is applied to a soul, it is well known in the Arabic language to mean taking the soul away in death. Please see my comments from the other thread which I replicate below with a view to keep continuity within this thread.
1. Mutawaffika
Even today in general Arabic parlance, the verb 'tawaffa' when associated with a soul is well understood to mean death.
I would humbly encourage those who are not fluent with Arabic to conduct an experiment by generally asking a native Arabic speaker (regardless of dialect) the meaning of 'tawaffa' when applied to a soul without reference to the Quran. In my humble opinion, it will become evident how well established and understood this word actually is, even today.
This meaning is even carried by the Quran:
16:28 - whom the angels take (in death) while still they are wronging themselves
16:32 - whom the angels take (in death) while they are goodly
2:234 - those of you who die and leave behind wives
2:240 - those of you who die among you and leave behind wives
22:5 - and among you (is he) who dies
The root meaning of the verb 'tawaffa' to mean receive, to take to oneself is correct from an Arabic linguistic perspective.
However, when applied to a soul, there is not one reference in the Quran of the verb 'tawaffa' or its derivate (yatawaffa, tawaffa, yutawaffa) that I know of in the Quran that does not imply death. This meaning when applied to a soul is also well understood in general Arabic parlance.
003:055 (part)
"When God said: "O Jesus! Verily, I shall cause you to die (Arabic: Mutawafeeka)..."
005:116-117
"...That worship God, my Lord and your Lord, and I was a witness over them as long as I was among them, but when you caused me to die (Arabic: Tawafaytani), you were the watcher over them, and you are witness of all things.
What I find somewhat telling is that when it comes to Prophet Jesus, Muslim theologians do not accept the clear meaning that the word 'tawaffa' implies in this context, but due to an extant belief of Prophet Jesus's return, they have adopted another.
I have even noted some English (Muslim) commentators to concede with the obvious rendition of 'tawaffa' to signify death in this context which I feel is an exercise of intellectual honesty.
Below is one example. There are also others.
003.055
"Lo! God said: "O Jesus! Verily, I shall cause thee to die..." [Muhammad Asad]
I hope that helps, God willing.
Joseph
REFERENCES
[1] IS THE SECOND COMING OF PROPHET JESUS (pbuh) SUPPORTED BY THE QURAN?
http://quransmessage.com/articles/is%20second%20coming%20attested%20by%20the%20quran%20FM3.htm
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Peace to you Brother Joseph,
Yes. I was familiar with your position on the perspective on the explicit statement "tawaffa".
Brother Joseph, you noted that When the verb 'tawaffa' is applied to a soul, it is well known in the Arabic language to mean taking the soul away in death.
Brother I also understand the word “tawaffa” also applies to Allah taking away the soul while asleep:
39:42. Allah takes the souls at the time of their death, and those that do not die [He takes] during their sleep. Then He keeps those for which He has decreed death and releases the others for a specified term. Indeed in that are signs for a people who give thought.
6:60. And it is He who takes your souls by night and knows what you have committed by day. Then He revives you therein [i.e., by day] that a specified term may be fulfilled. Then to Him will be your return; then He will inform you about what you used to do.
I do have another question.
Brother Joseph, you mentioned, “objections raised by classical authorities” over the position of the return of Jesus (PBUH). Could you please provide some of those references? I would like to obtain some background on classical debates on this issue.
Thank you, as always for the dialogue and scholarship.
Peace
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Dear DARahman,
Peace to you.
Brother Joseph, you noted that When the verb 'tawaffa' is applied to a soul, it is well known in the Arabic language to mean taking the soul away in death.
Brother I also understand the word “tawaffa” also applies to Allah taking away the soul while asleep:
Yes indeed dear brother. I trust that you will respectfully note that my statement was a reflection of how the verb 'tawaffa' is consistently used in the Quran and given my request of a hypothetical experiment, to ascertain how it is used in general Arabic parlance as well.
For example, in the Quran, the verb 'tawaffa' is used to imply nothing but death in 21 following occurrences:
4:97, 6:61, 47:27, 4:15, 7:37, 8:50, 10:46, 10:104, 13:40, 16:28, 16:32, 16:70, 32:11, 40:77, 3:193, 7:126, 12:101, 2:234, 2:240, 22:5, 40:67.
Sleep is likened to death in 2 verses:
6:60. 39:42
And then we have the disputed verses concerning Prophet Jesus which I find have no warrant to be interpreted as anything else other than implying 'death' given the established nature of the verb 'tawaffa'.
3:55, 5:117
The general statement of 6:60 in my opinion which your have shared, more than alludes to one's state in sleep being offered as an analogy to death which is more than implied by the Arabic 'ba'atha' which can refer to being raised up again after death (2:56).
Please note the structure of verse 6:60 - [sleep] [accountability] [raise]. I humbly do not believe the intention of the verse is to define the verb 'tawaffa' which in numerous other verses as already noted above and in general parlance in Arabic, is used to imply death. Rather, the focus of the verse carries a wider purpose of metaphorical import appealing strongly to the process of the human life-cycle. It is not merely about 'sleep'.
For example on the strength of verse 10:46 and 13:40, do we then conclude that Prophet Muhammad would also not die and would return for a second time?
Concerning Prophet Muhammad:
010:046
"And whether We show you (O Muhammad) some of that which We promised them or we cause you to [die] (tawaffa)..."
013:040
"And whether We show you (O Muhammad) some of that which We promised them or we cause you to [die] (tawaffa)..."
On the basis of the verses pertaining to Prophet Jesus, why does no commentator (to my knowledge) insist that Prophet Muhammad will also return for a second time on the basis of the above two verses?
As I'm sure you will agree, that we must be consistent in our Quranic study. The verses you have shared do not provide unequivocal evidence that Prophet Jesus will return.
Thus, I humbly assert, I do not feel that when Prophet Jesus claimed 'falamma tawaffaytani' (5:117) that he intended the verb 'tawaffa' to imply sleep, but rather death.
Given the above references, with respect, do you feel it is fair to take a well established meaning of a verb and when it comes to Prophet Jesus, to apply a contextually obscure inconclusive meaning on the strength of two verses implying 'sleep' to support an extraneous doctrine?. Personally and with respect, I humbly do not subscribe to an approach that takes inconclusive isolated verses to support a complete doctrine as a matter of fundamental belief.
The main thrust of my argument has been from a Quranic perspective.
However, as requested, I leave you with two papers [1] & [2] which discuss the matter from an Islamic secondary source perspective citing classical opinions on the matter.
"The prevalence among the mufassirūn of the view of Jesus as eschatological protagonist seems to explain their otherwise peculiar rejection of his death. Indeed there can be hardly any other reason to argue that while tawaffā refers to death on twenty-three occasions in the Quran, on the two occasions on which it is applied to Jesus it refers either to falling asleep or being taken to heaven. In any case neither of these latter two definitions seems credible. The idea of Jesus falling asleep seems ridiculous when it enters the midrashic traditions on Jesus and his disciples. The idea of Jesus being taken to heaven is already represented with the verb rafaʿa in both sūrat āl ʿImrān (3) 55 and sūrat al-nisā’ (4) 158" [1]
Regardless of the position taken by Islamic sources (which is not the basis of my argument), I find not one unequivocal statement in the entire Quran from God which states Prophet Jesus will return for a second time. An assertion not corroborated by a sacred text, cannot in my humble opinion form a mainstay belief.
In the end, only God knows best.
I hope that helps, God willing.
Regards,
Joseph.
REFERENCES:
[1] The Muslim Jesus: Dead or alive?
Gabriel Said Reynolds, Page 249
http://www.nd.edu/~reynolds/index_files/jesus%20dead%20or%20alive.pdf
[2] Please see in particular Chapter 2 and 5 which I leave for you to conduct your own analysis.
http://www.scribd.com/doc/56681898/33/Imam-Ibn-Hazm-Amawi-Zahiri-Qurtabi
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Thank you Brother Joseph. This dialogue is very helpful. I appreciate the thoroughness of your replies. I will review all the informaton you have provided in this dialogue.
Peace
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Ramadan Mubarak!
Brother Joseph,
I know it has been quite a while since this dialogue started.
I noticed that the Maulana Muhammad Ali translation of the Qur’an takes the position that Jesus did not die on the cross. I did notice that they translate ayah 4:159….:
1 5 9 And there is none of the People of the Book but will believe in this before his death; and on the day of Resurrection he will be a witness against them.a
…..to mean that the people of the book will all believe in Jesus’ (PBUH) death by crucifixion before the people of book die. Here is the commentary on that ayah:
159a. Both the Jews and the Christians necessarily believe in the death of Jesus on the cross, while according to the Holy Qur’ån they have really no sure knowledge of it. The Jews reject his claim to Messiahship on the basis of Deut. 21:23: “He that is hanged is accursed of God”. Their belief is that since Jesus died on the cross he was accursed, and no one who is accursed of God can be a prophet. Following quite a different line of argument, a Christian believes that Jesus died on the cross and was accursed. He admits the truth of Deut. 21:23, but he says that unless Jesus were accursed he could not take away the sins of those that believe in him. As in Gal. 3:13: “Christ hath redeemed us from the curse of the law, being made a curse for us; for it is written, Cursed is every one that hangeth on a tree”. Hence the fundamental principle of the belief of both Jews and Christians is that Jesus died on the cross, and the meaning of the verse is clear, viz., every Jew and Christian, notwithstanding that he has no sure knowledge at all, must believe before his death that Jesus died on the cross.
Does that seem to be a reasonable interpretation of ayah 4:159 to you?
Salaam