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May the peace, blessings and mercy of Allah be upon you.
I, firstly, want to thank you, brother Joseph and team, very much for everything. I am a Brazilian Muslim, firstly converted into Shiism and noticed by months in it, witnessing the falsehood and the cruelty in it and all the other sects, got sad by noticing all the lies I have been believing it regarding infallibility and imamate, and just opened my eyes and saw that the true Islam is only by the Everlasting Lord and His Law. I haven't announced it to anyone yet to anyone who I talk to, in and outside the Shia or Sunni sect, but now I bear witness that I believe in my GOD who created my spirit and everything existing and being from early times and prior to His establishment in my being and all that shall come after, and I believe in the Judgement Day, HIS Prophets, Angels, Books and Messengers.
I've always been curious on the historicity of the Prophet Muhammad, peace be upon him. I know that he undoubtely existed, but I also know that many things attributed to him in ahadith are false, many by envolving immoral, inhumane and anti-natural things. Though this is not very much the case, I am wondering about a possible Quranic violation: many ahadith, books of alleged biography attributed to his living and tradition state that he had more than four wives at a single moment. I also saw a topic on which brother or sister asked you about the permissibility of a man to have more than four wives, playing the doubt by relating the expression "two, three or four" in another verse talking about the pairs of wings. I honestly believe that the reason why having more than four wives (as evident) is forbidden because it's difficult (if not impossible) for a man to spend his attention on more than it, specially if they have children, and the Quran says that a man cannot be equal to his wives even if he spends all his efforts on it. Ignoring the Bible and the secondary sources, which state not only that he, but Suleiman (peace be upon him) and possibly Dawud (peace be upon him) had more than it, the Surah 33, in the verses 50 to 52, give permission to the Prophet, peace be upon him, to marry other women, although not specifying the number, and it's written: "... this is an exclusive privilege of yours, forbidden to the other believers...", and the apocrife sources mentions that it is for a woman to give herself in marriage to a man without asking a dowry. Also, they state that a man can have more than four wives if they are slaves (and mut'ah too, and I now know that nikah mut'ah is forbidden), as written: "beyond those women it will not permissible for you to marry other women, nor switching them for other women, even if their beauty were to please you, with the exception of those whom your right hand possess, and GOD is Observer of all."
Even if we consider as possible that this was only a privilege of the Prophet or the Prophets, peace and blessings be upon them all, the sectarians believe that he had more than four wives even prior to it, but I wonder if this would not be a violation of the Quranic Commandments, since the permissibility is given only up to four; and it's given to us:
"And when you do not bring them a sign, they say, "Why have you not contrived it?" Say, "I only follow what is revealed to me from my Lord. This is enlightenment from your Lord and guidance and mercy for a people who believe." (Quran 7:203)
"Say, "I am not something original among the messengers, nor do I know what will be done with me or with you. I only follow that which is revealed to me, and I am not but a clear warner." (Quran 46:9)
If he only followed what the Mighty God revealed to him, and He does not open an exception for him to take more than four wives, it is difficult that he would take more than the allowed without God giving permission to it. The sectarians say that the Quran is not in cronological order (which is questionable), but the Surah al-Tahrim is giving us reference of two of his wives who possibly disbelieved and conspired against him and GOD threatened them with divorce, so I wonder if he really divorced them and then married others, and the forementioned verses of Surah al-Azhab says that he could divorce some wives and marry others, despite it is being used the word "forsake" in my translated Quran, which I am trying not to see as cruel, but then it's possible that he divorced some (or they died) and then he married others. Plus, how is your view on slave wives? Do they have the same status and number as free ones or they do not count?
Please, tell me your opinion. Thank you in advance.
Peace, mercy and blessings of God be upon you all,
Your sister Gabriela.

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