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Asalamu Alaikum brother Joseph Islam,
I hope all is well.
With the inferior political, social and economic situation of all so-called Islamic countries in the world, compare to western countries and the rise of extreme groups like Daish and Taliban, many educated Muslim believe in "Separation of Church and State" or we can say "Separation of Mosque and States in Islamic countries". They blame religion for this dire situation in Islamic countries
They credit the advancement of western countries to the idea of "Separation of Church and State".
From a Quran perspective, should the Government and Religion be separated?
Thank you

Thank you very much brother for the clarification.
JZK

Asalamu Alaikum Brother Joseph Islam,
I hope all is well. I really enjoy Quransmessage.com and thank you very much for your hard work and dedication.
I have been taught since childhood that Azar is the father of Prophet Ibrahim PBUH. I recently came across an article written by Shias that stated that Azar is not the biological father of Prophet Ibrahim PBUH rather his sire and His father name was Terakh as it is not mentioned in Quran.
The Shia site provides as evidence this verse
"O our Lord! grant me protection and my parents (Walidayn) and the believers on the day when the reckoning shall come to pass. (Qur'an 14:41)"
.The Shia Site states that Azar was a polytheist and Prophet Ibrahim will never pray for a Polytheist.
Is Azar Prophet Ibrahim's biological father according to Quran?
May Allah reward you

Brother Joseph Asalam ulaikum,
I have a question regarding Surah Yunus verse 94.
"So if you are in doubt of what We have revealed to you, then ask those who (have been) reading the Book before you. Verily, has come to you the truth from your Lord, so (do) not be among the doubters"

Many Islamophobes are using 10:94 to justify that Prophet Muhammad was possessed (Majnoon) and in doubt about Quran thus Quran is not the word of God. They say if Quran was the actual word of God then why would Allah commands Muhammad to refer to Christians and Jews for consultation?

If indeed Prophet Muhammad PBUH was in doubt about the revelation, wouldn't that contradict Surah 49:15 that believers are only those who truly believe in Allah and His messenger and then doubt not?

Surah 49:15
"The believers are only those who truly believe in ALLAH and HIS Messenger, and then doubt not, but strive with their possessions and their persons in the cause of ALLAH. It is they who are truthful.
I hope you can clarify Surah 10:94 so we can understand the true meaning of.

Thank you,

Thank you Brother Joseph and Athman for a very informative information on this subject.

Salam Alum Ahmad,

Thank you for the quick reply. Yes I had searched go ogle and found out that Honey Bees do eat fruits and did show my kids the images and articles. They have accepted that Honey Bees do eat fruits but they are still not convinced of why Qumran does not mentioned nectar or pollen.
Their argument as follow:
Honey Bees hibernate over the winter and are awaken in spring when the temperature warms up. Honey Bees are very active collecting nectar and pollen when flowers boom  and trees blossom in spring and you see a swarm of bees buzzing on flowers and blossom. There are no fruits in the spring for the bees to eat.
spring is the time the bees makes most of the honey.
The question arises from Sarah An-Nahl verse 69, is the word "الثمرات" translates as fruits or does it have other meanings in classical Arabic language?
Thank you brother.

Asalam Alaikum brother Joseph Islam,
I hope all is well.
Before I ask my question, please allow me to thank you sincerely for a wonderful job in explaining glorious Quran to regular people like me. I have learned so much from Quransmessage.com. May Allah SWT rewards your efforts.
I was reading Quran to my kids and I came across
016:068-69
"And your Lord inspired the bee saying: Make hives in the mountains and in the trees and in what they build. Then eat of all the fruits and follow the ways of your Lord submissively. There comes from within their bellies a beverage of many colours, in which there is healing for mankind most surely there is a sign in this for a people who reflect"

My kids said they have always sees the honey bees outside who sit on flowers and eat the nectar and never seen the honey bees eating from any fruits and they asked how come the Quran commands the bees to eat from all fruits and does not mention nectar?
I searched all the translation of Qurans in English, Urdu, Persian and Pashtu and all say fruits and I still have not found a convincing respond to my their questions.
I would appreciate if you can provide an answer to their question.
Thank you

Salam Alaikun Brother Joseph Islam,

I am still not convinced if Dowry is a pre-requisite for marital bond.

Verse 2:236 clearly states "There is no sin upon you if you DIVORCE women before touching them or assigning for them dowry".
I have capitalized the word "DIVORCE" to emphasize the importance of this word in order to understand the meaning of this verse.

Divorce can only happen if a man or a woman are married. Marriage can only happen if Nikkah has been performed.
Verse 2:236 clearly used the word DIVORCE to signify that marriage (Nikkah has been performed) has been established without assigning a DOWRY, unless divorce has another meaning that I am not aware of.
Thank you,

Salam brother Joseph Islam,
Thank you very much for the reply.
What is a Partial Marital bond based on Quran? How do you create a partial marital bond? Once partial marital bond is created or established, how do someone annul partial marital bond? by divorcing?
Verse 2:236 says " no sin upon you if you DIVORCE women before touching them or assigning for them a dowry". my understanding is you can only divorce someone if you have done Nikkah and  Nikkah is a very serious matter because it is a solemn covenant. Are you suggesting that verse 2:236 talks about partial marital bond?
I appreciate your help in advance.
Thank you,
Baandaar

As Salamu Alaikum dear brother Joseph Islam,
In one of your post in this forum, you have stated, "In my humble view from a Quranic perspective, a birdal due (ujur) would be a pre-requisite to establish the contract of marriage (4:24; 60:10).
If dowry is a pre-requisite then how do you explain 2:236 "There is no sin upon you if you divorce women before touching them or assigning for them a dowry. And give them provision upon the wealthy what is appropriate and upon he of limited resources what is appropriate - a provision based on the best (the "Known"), an obligation upon the doers of good." Noble QWuran 2:236.
This verse clearly states if you divorce women before touching them or ASSIGNING FOR THEM A DOWRY.
I would really appreciate it if you clarity this.

Thank you very much