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Joseph

My emails were sent to you on April 8 and April 17.

Joseph

My emails were sent to you on April 8 and April 17.

Shalom Joseph

I have sent you 2 emails to kindly reply to this post. I am waiting patiently.

Shalom Joseph

I have sent you 2 emails to kindly reply to this post. I am waiting patiently.

So it doesn't matter if verses were personally for the Prophet? Because these verses still apply to all believers?

Thank you all for your responses. 

[at congregation time]

62:9 O you who believe! When the call is heard for the salat at congregation time, then proceed to the remembrance of Allah and leave trade.

I made the above amateur translation using other English translations. I have translated 'yawm' as 'time' instead of 'day'. Is this an acceptable translation?

There are 5 times of congregation in a mosque per day. In view of 62:9, do muslims have a duty to do salat in congregation in a mosque 5 times a day?

Wasalam

Should the standard translation of 'haram' be 'sacred' instead of 'forbidden'?

Shalom.

Let's imagine that there are no dots above or below the stem, how do we know if 9:28 is to be read as 'lā taqrabū' and not 'lā yaqrabū'? How would it be possible to know if it is 2nd or 3rd person plural?

Wasalam

Dear Hamzeh

From my understanding, the quranite.com article seems to be suggesting that for 9:28 the dots were put below the stem arbitrarily, for no particular reason.

The Arabs of course would not of needed the diacritical points

If the Arabs did not need diacritical points, how would they know if 9:28 is to read as 'lā taqrabū' and not 'lā yaqrabū'?

Salam

[is arbitrary and not intrinsic to the original unadorned text]

Please see this article
https://www.quranite.com/al-masjid-al-haram-in-the-quran/

This article claims that the difference between 2nd person plural and 3rd person plural is merely that of placing a diacritical point to achieve 'ya' rather than 'ta' (the placing of two dots below the stem rather than above it) and is arbitrary and not intrinsic to the original unadorned text.

Is this claim valid?

On the basis of this claim, the article argues that 9:28 should read as 'lā taqrabū' and not 'lā yaqrabū', thus directing the believers to forsake al-masjid al-ḥarām.

According to 6:151, it is 'haram' to be good to parents.

Is haram a neutral word? Not negative or positive.

Please help to clarify why this is so. This is according to http://corpus.quran.com/

For example
http://corpus.quran.com/wordmorphology.jsp?location=(33:37:11)

Does the Quran contain defunct verses and chapters? This could be because they are confined to the prophet's lifetime or directed specifically to the prophet? In part, I looked at the 2nd person singular.

How much of the Quran is defunct?

Examples of possible defunct verses
49:2, 9:103, 59:7, 33:59, 66:1, 2:219, 2:222, 4:65, any verse that says "qul" to the prophet

Examples of possible defunct chapters, or portions of chapters
Chapters 9, 72, 73, 74, 80, 105, 108, 109, 112, 113, 114

Peace

Isn't this advising "each other" among the believers only?

Righteous deeds have no value in the afterlife if one lacks faith. Believers pursue truth and patience.

Warning is towards disbelievers.