Menu

Show posts

This section allows you to view all posts made by this member. Note that you can only see posts made in areas you currently have access to.

Show posts Menu

Messages - Forum Questions

#1
QUESTION ASKED ON ANOTHER FORUM
[Please contact Joseph Islam for further details of the original thread]


Is "Ahl Al-Bayt" responsible for your soul?!

Dear readers, Salam.

In the context of the Quran, the meaning of the "Ahl Al-Bayt" is undoubtedly the "Prophet's wives". Sadly, the Shia scholars distort the meaning of this phrase with a hadith. The millions of Shia followers disobey the Prophet's teaching and believe in their corrupt scholars. According to these scholars, the meaning of "Ahl-Al-Bayt" is " the family of the Prophet consists of Caliph Ali, his wife Fatema and their two sons Hassan and Hussain" excluding all other wives of the Prophet's family!

The process of corruption continues. The meaning of "Ahl-Al-Bayt" is now also all the descendants of the Caliph Ali's family. An elite group is created based on this understanding and millions of Shia followers disobey the Prophet's teaching, offer charities to this elite group for blessing instead of their poor relatives!

Do you believe the meaning of the "relatives" as mentioned in the following verses as "the relatives of the prophet" ( "Ahl-Al-Bayet") instead of the "relatives of the believers"?!

[2:83] We made a covenant with the Children of Israel: "You shall not worship except GOD. You shall honor your parents and regard the "relatives", the orphans, and the poor. You shall treat the people amicably. You shall observe the Contact Prayers (Salat) and give the obligatory charity (Zakat)." But you turned away, except a few of you, and you became averse.

[2:177] Righteousness is not turning your faces towards the east or the west. Righteous are those who believe in GOD, the Last Day, the angels, the scripture, and the prophets; and they give the money, cheerfully, to the "relatives", the orphans, the needy, the traveling alien, the beggars, and to free the slaves; and they observe the Contact Prayers (Salat) and give the obligatory charity (Zakat); and they keep their word whenever they make a promise; and they steadfastly persevere in the face of persecution, hardship, and war. These are the truthful; these are the righteous.
#2
QUESTION ASKED ON ANOTHER FORUM
[Please contact Joseph Islam for further details of the original thread]



God has made the universe, then made laws to run the universe. Now has He become dormant and leave the universe to run according to his laws OR is He practically busy in maintaining the universe?

Thanks
#3
QUESTION ASKED ON ANOTHER FORUM
[Please contact Joseph Islam for further details of the original thread]


Ruling on keeping a Dog

It is haraam to keep a dog unless it is for the purposes for which Islam permits keeping dogs. Whoever keeps a dog – except a dog for hunting or farming – his reward will decrease each day by one or two qeeraats.

It was narrated that Ibn 'Umar (may Allaah be pleased with him) said: "I heard the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) say: 'Whoever keeps a dog, except a dog that is trained for hunting or a dog for herding livestock, his reward will decrease each day by two qeeraats.'" (Narrated by al-Bukhaari, 5059; Muslim, 2941; according to another version narrated by them both, "one qeeraat").

The word qeeraat refers to a large amount of reward; if a person's reward decreases by one qeeraat, that means that he is sinning, for losing reward is like earning sin, both indicate that something is haraam because of the consequences it leads to.

The impurity of dogs is the greatest of animal impurities. The impurity of a dog can only be removed by washing seven times, one of which should be with earth. Even pigs, which the Qur'aan states are haraam and describes as an abomination (rijs) are not naajis (impure) to such an extent.

Dogs are impure and filthy, but unfortunately we find that some people are attracted to the ways of the kuffaar and their filthy habits, so they have started to keep dogs unnecessarily for no reason, keeping them, training them and cleaning them even though they can never be clean, even if they were washed with the waters of the ocean, because they are essentially impure.

Our advice to them is to repent to Allaah and to get the dogs out of their homes.

But in the case of dogs which are needed for hunting, farming and herding livestock, there is nothing wrong with that because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) gave permission for that. If you throw this dog out of your house, you will no longer be responsible for it, so do not keep it with you.

The ruling on touching a dog

If you touch it when it is not wet, then your hand does not become impure, but if you touch it when it is wet, this means that the hand becomes impure, according to the opinion of many scholars, and the hand must be washed seven times, one of which should be with earth.

With regard to vessels, if a dog has licked a vessel (i.e., drunk from it), then the vessel must be washed seven times, one of which should be with earth, as was proven in al-Saheehayn and elsewhere, in the hadeeth narrated from Abu Hurayrah (may Allaah be pleased with him) who said that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: "If a dog licks the vessel of any one of you, let him wash it seven times, one of which should be with earth." It is better if the washing with earth be the first washing. And Allaah knows best.

See Majmoo' Fataawa al-Shaykh Muhammad ibn 'Uthaymeen, 11/246; Fataawa Islamiyyah, 4/447.
http://www.islam-qa.com/index.php?ref=13356&ln=eng&txt=spit

Keeping a dog, touching it and kissing it

Question:
Keeping a dog is najis & - If a muslim man keep dog just to guard the house, outside the house - put the dog at the end of the compound, how should he cleans himself, what if he cannot find any earth or mud to clean himself, is there other alternative way of cleaning himself? [sometime, he take the dog for jogging, pat the dog, kiss the dog etc] .

Answer:

Firstly:

Islam forbids Muslims to keep dogs, and the punishment for that is that the one who does that loses one or two qiraats from his hasanaat (good deeds) each day. An exception has been made in the case of keeping dogs for hunting, guarding livestock and guarding crops.

It was narrated from Abu Hurayrah (may Allaah be pleased with him) that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: "Whoever keeps a dog, except a dog for herding, hunting or farming, one qiraat will be deducted from his reward each day." Narrated by Muslim, 1575.

It was narrated that 'Abd-Allaah ibn 'Umar (may Allaah be pleased with him) said: The Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: "Whoever keeps a dog, except a dog for herding livestock or a dog that is trained for hunting, two qiraats will be deducted from his reward each day." Narrated by al-Bukhaari, 5163; Muslim, 1574.

Is it permissible to keep a dog to guard houses?

Al-Nawawi said:
There is a difference of opinion as to whether it is permissible to keep dogs for purposes other than these three, such as for guarding houses and roads. The most correct view is that it is permissible, by analogy with these three and based on the reason that is to be understood from the hadeeth, which is necessity. .
Sharh Muslim, 10/236

Shaykh Ibn 'Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) said:
Based on this, if a house is in the middle of the city there is no need to keep a dog to guard it, so keeping a dog for this purpose in such situations is haraam and is not permitted, and it detracts one or two qiraats from a person's reward every day. They should get rid of this dog and not keep it. But if the house is in the countryside and there is no one else around, then it is permissible to keep a dog to guard the house and the people who are in it; guarding the members of the household is more important than guarding livestock or crops. .
Majmoo' Fataawa Ibn 'Uthaymeen, 4/246

There are several scholarly views about reconciling the reports which say "one qiraat" and those which say "two qiraats".
Al-Haafiz al-'Ayni (may Allaah have mercy on him) said:

(a) It may be that they have to do with two types of dogs, one of which could cause more harm than the other.

(b) It was said that "two qiraats" applies in cities and villages, and "one qiraat" applies in the countryside.

(c) It was said that they were said at two different times – "one qiraat" was mentioned first, then the warning was made more strict and two qiraats were mentioned.

'Umdat al-Qaari, 12/158.

Secondly:
With regard to the words of the questioner, "keeping a dog is naajis". This is not exactly correct, because the najaasah (impurity) is not in the dog itself, rather it is in its saliva when it drinks from a vessel. If a person touches a dog or a dog touches him, that does not mean that he has to purify himself, whether with soil or water. But if a dog drinks from his vessel, then he has to throw away the water and wash it seven times with water and the eighth time with soil, if he wants to use it. If he makes it just for the dog then he does not have to purify it.

It was narrated from Abu Hurayrah (may Allaah be pleased with him) that the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: "The purification of the vessel of one of you, if a dog licks it, is to wash it seven times, the first time with soil." Nararted by Muslim, 279.

And according to another report by Muslim (280): "If a dog licks the vessel of one of you, let him wash it seven times and rub it with soil the eighth time."
Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah (may Allaah have mercy on him) said:
With regard to dogs, there are three views among the scholars:

1 – That they are taahir (pure), even their saliva. This is the view of Maalik.

2 – That they are naajis (impure), even their hair. This is the view of al-Shaafa'i and is one of the two views narrated from Ahmad.

3 – Their hair is taahir but their saliva is naajis. This is the view of Abu Haneefah and of Ahmad in the other report narrated from him.

This is the most correct view. So if the wetness of the dog's hair gets onto one's garment or body, that does not make it naajis. End quote.
Majmoo' al-Fataawa, 21/530.

Elsewhere he said:

That is because the basic principle is that substances are taahir, and it is not permissible to regard anything as naajis or haraam without evidence, as Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
"while He has explained to you in detail what is forbidden to you, except under compulsion of necessity?"
[al-An'aam 6:119]

"And Allaah will never lead a people astray after He has guided them until He makes clear to them as to what they should avoid"
[al-Tawbah 9:115]

The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: "The purification of the vessel of one of you, if a dog licks it, is to wash it seven times, the first time with soil" – and in another hadeeth, "If a dog licks a vessel..."

All of the ahaadeeth mention licking only; they do not mention any other part of the dog, regarding them as naajis is based only on analogy.

Moreover, the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) granted a concession allowing people to keep dogs for hunting, herding and farming. The one who keeps them must touch the wetness of their hair, just as happens in the case of mules, donkeys, etc. To suggest that their hair is naajis when touching them cannot be avoided could impose undue hardship, which is not what the Lawgiver intended for this ummah.
Majmoo' al-Fataawa, 21/217, 218

To be on the safe side it is better, if a person touches a dog and there is something wet on his hand, or if there is something wet on the dog, to wash his hand seven times, one of which should be with soil.

Shaykh Ibn 'Uthaymeen said:
With regard to touching this dog, if there is no wetness then it does not make the hand naajis, but if he touches it and there is any wetness, then this means that the hand becomes naajis according to the view of many scholars, and the hand must be washed after that seven times, one of which should be with soil. End quote.
Majmoo' Fataawa Ibn 'Uthaymeen, 11/246.

Thirdly:
What must be done is to wash off the najaasah of a dog seven times, one of which should be with soil. If soil is available then it must be used, and nothing else will do. If no soil is available, then there is nothing wrong with using some other cleaning agent such as soap.

Fourthly:
What the questioner mentions about kissing the dog is something that causes many diseases. The diseases that people may get as the result of going against sharee'ah by kissing dogs or drinking from their vessels before purifying them are many, such as pasturella which is a bacterial disease, the cause of which exists naturally in the respiratory systems of humans and animals, but under certain circumstances this germ can invade the body and cause disease.

Another of these diseases is a parasitic disease that affects the intestines of humans and animals, and usually affects the liver and lungs, the abdominal cavity and the rest of the body.

This disease is caused by tapeworms, which are small worms 2-9 millimeters long, which are formed of three sections, a head and a neck; the head has four suckers.

The adult worms live in the intestines of their hosts, such as dogs, cats, crows and wolves.

This disease is transmitted to human who love dogs, when they kiss them or drink from their vessels.

See: Amraad al-hayawaanaat allati tuseeb al-insaan (Animal diseases that affect humans) by Dr. 'Ali Ismaa'eel 'Ubayd al-Snaafi.

Conclusion:

It is not permissible to keep dogs except for hunting or guarding livestock and crops, and it is permissible to keep them for guarding houses so long as that is outside the city and that there is no other means of guarding the house. The Muslim should not imitate the kuffaar by running with the dog or touching its mouth and kissing it, which causes many diseases.
Praise be to Allaah for this pure and perfect sharee'ah, which came to set people's spiritual and worldly affairs straight, but most people do not realize.
http://www.islam-qa.com/index.php?ref=69840&ln=eng

Touching dogs and their saliva does not nullify wudoo'

Touching dogs or their saliva does not nullify wudoo' because if tahaarah is done according to the rules of sharee'ah, nothing can nullify it except things for which there is evidence in sharee'ah. There is no such evidence that touching dogs or their saliva have this effect. It was not mentioned by the scholars among the things that nullify wudoo'.

Ibn Qudaamah mentioned in al-Mughni (1/264) things that nullify wudoo', and he did not mention touching dogs or their saliva. Then he said: "These are all the things that nullify tahaarah, and it cannot be nullified by anything else according to the view of the majority of scholars..."

But there is no doubt that dogs' saliva is very dirty and extremely naajis (impure), and it can only be removed by washing seven times, one of them with earth. There is a difference between this and something which nullifies tahaarah.
http://www.islam-qa.com/index.php?ref=5212&ln=eng

And Allaah knows best.

Islam Q&A

salaam walekum
Adil Khan
Bombay.
#4
QUESTION ASKED ON ANOTHER FORUM
[Please contact Joseph Islam for further details of the original thread]


AA all,
At what period of time in human the ruh or soul enters?
Is it present at the time of conception?
Or is it after birth,one gets it?
From birth to death it keeps changing(evolving) or it remains the same?
#5
QUESTION ASKED ON ANOTHER FORUM
[Please contact Joseph Islam for further details of the original thread]


Dear all AA,
What is the best approach to edcate and stop qabar parast(grave worshipers)from worshipping the deads on Thursdays,day of the pirs?
Specially,Muslims who don't understand Quranic teaching much.
Please do give some references,resources etc...it will be a great help..thanks
#6
QUESTION RESPONDED TO BY ANOTHER MEMBER
[Please contact Joseph Islam for further details of the original thread]


Non-QXP translation to make a point:

2:223 Your wives are (as) a tilth (to produce and rear children) for you, so come to your tilth when and how you like and send forward (some good) for yourselves, and take Allah as a shield, and know that you shall meet Him, and give good tidings to the believers

Please note the word Tilth above and re consider your position. Enough said.

Any Bukhari report that contradicts the Qur'an is what it is: a report (or a misquote). It is not Allah's Word.

No women with a sense of honour would put up with this unnatural act. Medically it is not advisable either and can lead to health issues.
#7
QUESTION ASKED ON ANOTHER FORUM
[Please contact Joseph Islam for further details of the original thread]


Dear Members,

Al-Kafi, our book of Hadees mentions Imam Ali Raza saying that he used to have rear sex with two concubines every night.

My Sunni friend Sidik used to say that it was wrong. Then I showed him two similar Hadees in Bukhari.

Abdullah Ibne Umar was reciting the Quran. When he reached verse 2:223, he asked Naafe' whether he knew the application of this verse. Then he went on to explain: "Your women are your fields therefore go to your fields as you please. If you wish, go into her.... [(Bukhari Vol 2 Pg 729 Kitab Tafsir, chapter 597, Hadith 1641). It is astounding that even the original Arabic text leaves a blank space here!

Imam Abu Suleman Jozjani told Muhammad bin Sa'd: I was in the company of Imam Malik. Imam Malik was asked, "Can a man have rectal intercourse with his wives?"Malik struck his head with his hand and replied, "O Dummies! I am coming directly from bath after doing that. Don't you read in the Quran that your wives are your fields, go into them as you please?" ('Amdatil Qari, Tafsir Bukhari, explanation of verse 2:223).

Now both of us do it with our wives. The women hated it at first but now enjoy it.

Are we committing sin or is it allowed?

Apologies for being explicit
#8
QUESTIONS ASKED ON ANOTHER FORUM
[Please contact Joseph Islam for further details of the original thread]


Dear viewars,

I have two child, I and my wife are marrying our daughter at the age of 8 with a pious man no matter what is his age (51) - given that they both can continue with good life - who can stop me? At least Islam not stop me.

About many young men (20), when I see their face, I suspect even no one will like to marry his daughter with you in any age, what to say under 10.

Problem is that, sex has grabbed people. Whenever marriage is discussed only thing that comes in your mind is sex. Marriage is contract to live rest of life together, of course sex is 'part' of it, not 'all' of it.

If you believe sex is the only reason for marriage, or when parents are going to marry their daughter sex is the reason in their mind, then surely I am talking to a wrong person. I don't know trend at your side in Amrica while marrying a daughter.

Regards,
[Name removed]

_________


Dear readers

I agree with [Name removed]

It is a strange that you will be asking me a thing which I never ever supported.

I have wrote it many times, see again; 'If a girl (like 9 year old) is married happy, is this marriage allowed? Answer=yes. Should it be done? Answer = Yes if happy.

There are always circumstances and constrainsts.

Why you not stop your friends from early marriage?

Keep in mind, I am not supporting this type of marriage but if hadees narration is saying that it was done so, I will always support this - whenever a person will quote this I will defend this.

Dont stop your frends - I have no problem.

See a simple formula. When should a marriage be performed? Answer is simple, when it is most probably assumed to be a successful life contract.

If it is assumed and done then who can dare to call this marriage a wrong act?

Regards

#9
QUESTION ASKED ON ANOTHER FORUM
[Please contact Joseph Islam for further details of the original thread]


... "Tarikh al-Rasul wa al-Muluk"

Dear brother,

Do you mean Tarikh-il-Umam wa a'-Muluk?
#10
QUESTION ASKED ON ANOTHER FORUM
[Please contact Joseph Islam for further details of the original thread]



Dear Friends, Mr Javed Ghamdi is considered a modern moderate scholar. He, however is of the opinion that the Qur'an gives the right to a husband to hit his wife to reform her. Here is his watered down version:

The Right to Punish a Wife
Social Issues
Javed Ahmad Ghamidi
(Tr. by:Shehzad Saleem)

Marriage is a contract in which it is the responsibility of the husband to generously provide for the expenses of his wife and children. He is required to deal with them in a way which is in accordance with the norms of decency and those of sense and reason, and which is based on graciousness and courtesy, and in which the requisites of justice and fairness are fulfilled. Similarly, it is required of a wife that she should adopt an attitude of harmony and obedience towards the husband and protect his secrets as well as his honour and integrity.

Like other contracts, this nature of the contract also requires that if any of the parties violates it and in spite of counsel and advice, rebuke and reproach is not prepared to mend its ways, then it should be punished. This punishment can be meted out by a court and by the elders of the family. The Qur'ān has given this right to the husband also. It says that if a wife becomes rebellious by defying his authority, then he can resort to three options to save the family from dismembering:

First, he should urge his wife to mend her ways. The word used by the Qur'ān is وَعَظ which means that she can be admonished and also scolded to some extent in this regard.

Second, intimate marital relations with her should be suspended in order to communicate to her that if she does not mend her ways, she might have to face severe repercussions.

Third, she can be punished physically.

A question arises about this last option: with a change in society and civilization, if exercising the first two options does not bear results and a husband is left with no alternative but to adopt the third option, can a state bind him to not take this step himself and consign this matter to a court of law?

The opinion of this writer is in the affirmative. This is because this alternative is merely another way of following the directive of God and does not annul the directive. It does not make a difference if to reform the wife the punishment is meted out by the husband, the elders of the family or a court of law. It is the will of God that if to save a family, a wife needs to be punished, then she should be punished. It is only a reformatory measure and nothing more.

(Translated from Maqāmāt by Shehzad Saleem)

http://www.monthly-renaissance.com/issue/content.aspx?id=1274
#11
QUESTION ASKED ON ANOTHER FORUM
[Please contact Joseph Islam for further details of the original thread]



Thanks for your response brother ...

I was thinking the same but then in 4:25 "fahishatin" is used in the sense of adultery which is confirmed by the fact that it says "their [believing maidens] punishment will be half that of the free women" i.e 50 lashes.

///Whereas the offence in 4:15 could be an ill which affects the wider society (such as prostitution), the offence in 24:2 is simply restricted to personal immorality such as adultery or fornication and applies to both genders and attracts a specific punishment.///

Is not the act between a prostitute and her partner either adultery or fornication? Why should it not be treated in accordance with 24:2?
#12
QUESTION ASKED ON ANOTHER FORUM
[Please contact Joseph Islam for further details of the original thread]


Is lewdness (faahishata) as stated in 4:15 the same as fornication/adultery?

4:15 "If any woman or a group of women spread sexual immorality or lewdness in the society, it is required that the appropriate court take four reliable witnesses. If their testimony corroborates with other evidence (12:26), confine them to their houses (since immorality is as contagious as good conduct). This confinement would be for an indefinite period, unless such women seek the way of God (such as repentance and reform or that the singles among them get honorably married)."

if Yes, then which punishment is to be meted out, the one in 4:15 or the one mentioned in 24:2?

24:2 "The adulteress and the adulterer, flog each one of them with a hundred stripes. And let not compassion sway you in their case from carrying out God's law, if you believe in God and the Last Day. And let a group of believers witness the penalty."
#13
QUESTION ASKED ON ANOTHER FORUM
[Please contact Joseph Islam for further details of the original thread]



Dear Brother ...

I am just learner. Moreover, I read many post from you on [Name Removed] forum. I respect your views a lot. But, to make topic clear, I put forward the material, I come across.

Now, back to point of discussion.

Allama GA Parwez and Dr Shabbir both defines one of the meanings of "Salla" as "to follow closely".

Moreover, Allah SWT gives many verses on a particular topic over and over again (6:105, 17:41) to make things clear.

So, is it not possible that Allah SWT used two opposite words (salla v/s tawalla) to make meaning clear ?

Second point to note is that ṣaddaqa (accepted the truth) v/s kadhaba (Denied the truth). If argument is of repetition, then how to explain this repetition?

Third point to note is that of word "lākin" (But), which provides the sense that opposite words are used to make meaning clear.

I am just putting another view point.

With respect and regards,

Wazir
#14
QUESTION ASKED ON ANOTHER FORUM
[Please contact Joseph Islam for further details of the original thread]


Please see the word to word translation from 'The Quranic Arabic Corpus' which is an open source project at the School of Computing, University of Leeds.

Here is analysis of verses 75:31-32
http://corpus.quran.com/wordbyword.jsp?chapter=75&verse=31

falā
And not

ṣaddaqa
he accepted (the) truth

walā
and not

ṣallā
he prayed.

walākin
But

kadhaba
he denied

watawallā
and turned away.

So, If we translate 'salla" as 'to follow', the translation may be as under:

And he did not accept (the) truth and did not follow (the truth), But he denied (the truth) and turned away (from the truth).

Does this make sense?
#15
QUESTION ASKED ON ANOTHER FORUM
[Please contact Joseph Islam for further details of the original thread]



Peace brother ...

Thank you for your explanation on tawalla.

Would it be correct that the subject in 75:31 is the truth? Subsequently, the subject of tawalla in 75:32 would also be the truth? In other words, what possible subject(s) could 75:32 be referring to as denying and turning away?

75:31 - For he neither stood by the truth, nor did he follow it. [Sall = To follow, like the runnersup horse closely follows the winner, Saabiq = To closely follow the commands of God]

75:32 - Rather, he used to deny and turn away.