Messages

1

Islamic Duties / Re: Paying some extra amount while repaying the loan amount

« on: October 11, 2015, 03:36:34 PM »

Salam all,

The real problem is in the current "fiat money" itself which creates an inherent "automatic inflation" within it. To understand how the contemporary "money" works is somehow very crucial.

Here is the brief explanation about the process of money creation :

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=t5ayg3hbhoM

The Quran has explicitly mentioned "dinar" (3:75) and "dirham" (12:20) as real money, instead of the current fiat (read : fake) money.

I do believe that this is a very difficult situation, but at least we understand what is going on in our global economic system today.

Hope this helps.

Salam,

2

General Discussions / Re: Respectful Disagreement with "Intercession and the Prophet's help" article:

« on: June 13, 2015, 04:31:28 PM »

Assalamu'alaykum,
Dear Brother Lobotomize94 and Brother Joseph,

In my humble opinion, the EXCEPTION is undoubtedly VALID.
And I believe this exception is applied only for THE ANGELS, specifically THE ANGELS WHO WILL ACCOMPANY EACH OF US ON THE DAY OF JUDGEMENT (50:21).

Here's my explanation :
1. The only ones who are mentioned EXPLICITLY in Quran who have the capacity to intercede are THE ANGELS (53:26)

2. 82:19 says that :
"(It will be) the Day when no soul (nafsun) shall have power (to do) aught for another (nafsin): For the command, that Day, will be (wholly) with Allah."

While in 91:7-10, we know that nafs are entities who are granted volition (i.e. humans and jinns). Again in this context, THE ANGELS are EXCLUDED.

3. Then the next question : Which angels are granted as intercessor on the day of judgement?

43:86 says that :
And those whom they invoke besides Allah have no power of intercession;- ONLY he who bears witness to the Truth (shahida bi l-haq), and they know (him) (wahum ya'lamun).

Please take note the similarity of :
- The word "shahida bi l-haq" in 43:86 and "shahiid" in 50:21
- The word "ya'lamun" in 43:86 and "ya'lamun" in 82:12

4. Finally, since :
- God knows exactly what is in front and behind the intercessor (2:255); and
- All the intercessions belongs to Him only (39:44); and
- ... For the command, that Day (i.e. Day of Judgement), will be (wholly) with Allah (82:19); and
- God is perfect in justice, and no one will be suffered even a single injustice from Him (3:108,3:117,3:182,4:40, 8:51, 9:70, 11:101, 16:33, 29:40);
The conclusion will be so obvious in this context, that essentially all intercessions will be "no beneficial" on the day of judgement.

Only God knows best.

Salam,

3

General Discussions / Re: What is the difference between Arabic words Wafat and Mauth?

« on: June 12, 2015, 11:00:57 PM »

Salam,
Dear Bro Sardar Miyan,

Allah clearly says in 39:42 where the words "wafat" and "maut" are both mentioned :
Allah takes the souls (yatawaffa l-anfusa) at the time of their death (mautiha), and those that do not die (lam tamut) [He takes] during their sleep. Then He keeps those for which He has decreed death (qadha 'alayha l-maut) and releases the others for a specified term. Indeed in that are signs for a people who give thought.

I hope that helps.

May God bless you.
Salam,

4

Women / Re: 43:18: does this ayah view women negatively?

« on: June 12, 2015, 10:41:59 PM »

Dear Bro good logic,

Thank you for your clarification.
It seems more reasonable for me now.. 

May God bless you.
Salam,

5

General Discussions / Re: Drawing / depicting 'the Prophet' sallallaho 'alayhi wasalaam - Allowed?

« on: June 11, 2015, 07:17:46 PM »

Salam,
Dear Brother IjazAhmad,

Please refer to this link written by Bro Joseph for further elaboration :
http://quransmessage.com/articles/are%20statues%20and%20images%20unlawful%20FM3.htm

And I found this is interesting to read also :
http://www.newsweek.com/koran-does-not-forbid-images-prophet-298298

I hope that helps.
Thank you,

Salam,

6

General Discussions / Re: Jesus dead or alive. The author argues he is not dead !! Please comment

« on: June 11, 2015, 03:59:18 PM »

Bro IjazAhmed, The main point of Khurshid Imam's argument is that Prophet Jesus got Wafat, a temporary death but actually as per Ayah 19:33 Jesus got Mauth. Therefore the entire structure of Imams argument nullifies that Jesus got Wafat Temporary death. There is absolutely no need for Jesus
to come back while the door for Nabuwat is closed. And why should a Nabi come as ummaty of another Nabi ?

Dear Brother Sardar Miyan,
In my humble opinion, honestly we cannot simply use ayah 19:33 as reference that Prophet Jesus pbuh had "already experienced maut". When you look at the context in the previous ayahs (19:29-32), it is clear that the statement in 19:33 which contains word "maut" is a part of the statement made by Prophet Jesus pbuh himself when he was a little baby from the cradle. So, in this context, the word "maut" mentioned in this ayah is still something that still to come in future, and seems to be "in harmony" with the statement "qabla mautihi" in 4:159.

Only God knows best.

Salam,

7

Women / Re: 43:18: does this ayah view women negatively?

« on: June 11, 2015, 02:12:30 PM »

Salam dear brother good logic,

Thank you for your kind explanation.

However, I have a little bit confusion now about who is really speaking in this ayah, God or pagan Arabs?

According to your explanation, it is the pagan Arabs who spoke.

Then أَوَمَن يُنَشَّؤُا۟ فِى الحِليَةِ وَهُوَ فِى الخِصامِ غَيرُ مُبينٍ,"them" they will say:"what is good about a child/offspring...that is brought up in beauty/beautiful/..."hilyati,and cannot help in "khissam"dispute/war/fight...

So the statement that "a woman is a creature who brought up in adornment and cannot explain clearly in debate" comes from the mouth of the pagan Arabs and not God.

But I think most people (including myself) look at this ayah as if this is God's statement, and not pagan Arab's. Please see this Yusuf Ali translation :

(043:018) Is then one brought up among trinkets, and unable to give a clear account in a dispute (to be associated with God)?

But sadly, to use this ayah (as some people did) as a basis to degrade women, in my opinion, is somehow inappropriate and in contradiction with the whole concept of women in Quran.

Therefore I feel it is important for me to seek a "more honest" interpretation of this ayah.

However, I have an opinion that the term "huwa" in this ayah is referred to "the pagan Arabs themselves" (and not the "child/offspring"), who themselves live in luxurious life style (adornment) but sadly cannot give clear explanation about their own belief as to why having a baby girl is something embarrassing.
But since my conclusion comes from my limited knowledge of arabic, then I have to humbly ask bothers and sisters here in this forum for explanation

Thank you.

Salam,

8

Women / 43:18: does this ayah view women negatively?

« on: June 10, 2015, 12:10:11 PM »

Assalamu'alaykum,
Brother Joseph,

I have a question about Surah 43:18

Transliteration of 43:18
Awaman yunashshao fee alhilyati wahuwa fee alkhisami ghayru mubeen

Yusuf Ali translation :
(043:018) Is then one brought up among trinkets, and unable to give a clear account in a dispute (to be associated with God)?

Does this verse really describe women in such a negative way (i.e. deficient in intelligence), while in reality, we know for sure that there are so many brilliant women as we've seen through history, e.g. Queen of Saba (27:23) ?

If this ayah is truly referring to women, why it uses the term "huwa" (masculine), instead of "hiya" (feminine)?

I'm waiting for your explanation.
Thank you.

Salam.

9

Prophets and Messengers / Re: IS THE SECOND COMING OF PROPHET JESUS (pbuh) SUPPORTED BY THE QURAN?

« on: March 23, 2015, 04:48:03 PM »

As-salaamu’alaykum
Brother Joseph,

In my humble opinion, I do believe that the 2nd coming of Prophet Jesus pbuh is somehow confirmed by Quran. Here are some points to be considered :
1. Quran clearly make a distinction between term “wafat” (w-f-y) and “mawt” (m-w-t) in 39:42.
    a. So far I haven’t found any ayat in Quran which addresses that Prophet
       Jesus pbuh had experienced “mawt”, while 3:185 clearly denotes that
       “every soul shall have a taste of death (al-maut).” It is unlikely with the
       case of the demise of Prophet Muhammad pbuh in 3:144 that use the term
       "mata" to emphasize that he pbuh is really died.
    b. The case of Ashabul Kahf could also be the example.

2. I also humbly believe that the context of “wa rafi’uka ilayya” (raise thee to Myself) in 3:55 is different with the case of Prophet Idris pbuh in 19:57 : “wa rafa’nahu makanan ‘aliyya” (And we raised him to a lofty station), with the consideration that the words “ilayya” (to Myself) – which is not used in the case of Prophet Idris -  perhaps is the key to differentiate the above 2 different cases.

3. Therefore the statement "before his death" in 4:159: “And there is none of the People of the Book but must believe in him before his death (qabla mautihi); and on the Day of Judgment he will be a witness against them”, could possibly referring to a point of time in the future (i.e. the 2nd coming of Prophet Jesus pbuh).

Only Allah knows best.

For further elaboration on this matter, I find it is useful to read the following article :
http://khurshidimam.blogspot.com/2012/06/jesus-dead-or-alive.html

Thank you.

Salam,

10

General Discussions / Re: Surah An-Nazi'at

« on: February 01, 2015, 03:34:57 PM »

Thank you for your clarification..

11

General Discussions / Surah An-Nazi'at

« on: January 20, 2015, 04:03:50 PM »

Salamun 'alaikum Br. Joseph,

I have a question regarding Surah An-Nazi'at. In my opinion, I don't think the term An-Nazi'at is talking about "Those Who Pull Out" (the souls), especially when we come to the verse 2 of that surah "Wan-nashitati nashta" which is interpreted as "By those who gently draw out (the souls of the blessed)", while in indonesian-arabic dictionary the word "nashta" means giat (active/energetic) or rajin (diligent). For me it is too far from its literal meaning.

However, the root "nun-za-ayn" has been used in Quran for several different context, for example in 4:59. Here Allah talks about "people in different oppinion / dispute". And in my opinion, this render of meaning is closer to the context given in surah An-Nazi'at.

Is my opinion correct? I'm waiting forward for your explanation and hopefully you could share your understanding in this matter.

Thank you.

Salam,