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Offline Hamzeh

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Asalamu Alykum

Is the privilege of marrying women who give herself to a believer not permitted? Or was the privilege that the Prophet Muhammad  (pbuh) had over believers was that he did not have to give the dowry(mahr) while other believers do have to give the dowry?

33:50 O Prophet! Lo! We have made lawful unto thee thy wives unto whom thou hast paid their dowries, and those whom thy right hand possesseth of those whom Allah hath given thee as spoils of war, and the daughters of thine uncle on the father's side and the daughters of thine aunts on the father's side, and the daughters of thine uncle on the mother's side and the daughters of thine aunts on the mother's side who emigrated with thee, and a believing woman if she give herself unto the Prophet and the Prophet desire to ask her in marriage - a privilege for thee only, not for the (rest of) believers - We are Aware of that which We enjoined upon them concerning their wives and those whom their right hands possess - that thou mayst be free from blame, for Allah is ever Forgiving, Merciful.

Peace

Offline wanderer

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Re: What was the privilege the Prophet had over the believers in verse 33:50
« Reply #1 on: January 10, 2017, 06:15:07 PM »
Great question. I would have to say that the only privilege here is like you mentioned, the last line where it was permitted for him to marry a woman who offered herself in marriage without expecting a dower.
Regards
wanderer
Rather, We dash the truth upon falsehood, and it destroys it, and thereupon it departs. And for you is destruction from that which you describe. (21:18)

Offline Hamzeh

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Re: What was the privilege the Prophet had over the believers in verse 33:50
« Reply #2 on: January 10, 2017, 07:14:46 PM »
Peace

Thanks Wanderer for your response.

So all other believers are permitted to marry women who had given her self to him but they are not exempt from thr agreement of the formal dowry.

Salam


Offline wanderer

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Re: What was the privilege the Prophet had over the believers in verse 33:50
« Reply #3 on: January 10, 2017, 09:32:00 PM »
Yes, this is how I understand it, and this is also how many other scholars in the past understood it, according to Muhammad Asad
Note 60
The relevant clause reads, literally, "if she offered herself as a gift (in wahabat nafsaha) to the Prophet". Most of the classical commentators take this to mean "without demanding or expecting a dower (mahr)", which, as far as ordinary Muslims are concerned, is an essential item in a marriage agreement (cf. 4:4 and 24, and the corresponding notes; also surah 2 note 224.
(From "The Message of the Quran" by Muhammad Asad)
Regards
wanderer
Rather, We dash the truth upon falsehood, and it destroys it, and thereupon it departs. And for you is destruction from that which you describe. (21:18)

Offline Hamzeh

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Re: What was the privilege the Prophet had over the believers in verse 33:50
« Reply #4 on: January 10, 2017, 10:10:41 PM »
Thanks brother Wanderer for sharing that. Seems to make sense. May God bless you

Salam