Dear Optimist
May peace be with you.
Please see my responses to your comments in
redIt was the temple rule that someone dedicated to the service of the temple should not marry. Mary's mother was not a nun. With respect, there is no Quranic support or evidence for your interpolated statement. You are simply relying on an indiscriminate use of Biblical traditions to support your presuppositions.
In fact, I asserted that it was
your unwarranted definition of 'baghiy' in a particular context that implied that Mary's mother was a nun.
Here is what I said:
019.027-28
"Then she came to her people with him, carrying him (with her). They said: O Mary! surely you have done a strange thing. O sister of Aaron! Your father was not a wicked man nor was your mother unchaste (baghiy)"
Also note how the noun 'bigha' is used in verse 24:33 to imply fornication or prostitution.
If according to you, 'baghiy' in this context means a transgression such as participating in intimacy when one has renounced the world, then are you seriously suggesting that based on the above verse Mary's mother also never transgressed the boundaries of intimacy as she was a nun? Then how did Mary's mother conceive Mary?
Here also "unchaste" is not the apt translation. The Jews were saying that Mary's mother always respected the clerical discipline and never revolted against the temple rules. This is once again, an unwarranted interpolation. I have provided clear evidence to you how the
noun ‘baghiy’ is used in the Quran. I have even appealed to the noun
'bigha' and its use in verse 24:33 to imply fornication or prostitution. You have simply ignored this.
There is absolutely no reason Jews had a case that Mary indulged in adultery.If Mary brought a baby seemingly out of wedlock to her people, what else would the charge be? Hence one notes clear evidence of surprise in the comments Mary's folk made to her. What you are doing is arguing from a position that Mary did not have a virgin birth which
you have not yet proven.Actually the Quran itself testifies that Mary guarded her chastity (66:12),Yes, God makes this clear to remove any doubt of Mary's chastity for all believers. But with respect, I once again fail to see what this has got to do with the charge the Jews make against her.
The Quran was not speaking to the Jews of the 1st century Palestine. It was speaking to an Arab audience of the Hijaz.
They are accusing her for violating the temple rules and getting married and coming back to them with Jesus. Once again, there is absolutely no proof for this. With respect, these are faulty assumptions leading to a wholly unwarranted and faulty conclusion.
It was man made temple rule that someone dedicated to the service of the temple should not marry, however, when Mary came to know about the true teaching she revolted against temple rules and left the life of a nun and started to live a normal life. Once again, there is no Quranic support or evidence for this.
The elderly priests who were extremely proud of their priesthood arrogantly asked should they talk to one who a little boy in the cradle (sarcastically). There is once again absolutely
no Quranic support or evidence for your interpolation. You have assumed without any Quranic warrant that those that asked the questions were elderly priests. You have completely rendered futile the Quran's clear Arabic verses and narrative.
Mary simply came to her people (qawmaha) 19:27 (no mention of elderly priests) carrying her baby. They were clearly shocked at what she had brought (laqad ji'ti shayan fariyyan) and then they made the implied accusation (19:28).
This is clear Arabic text.This actually does not mean that Jesus was an infant at that time."They said, how can we speak to one who is in the cradle, a child?" (al-mahdi sabiyyan). 19:29 (part)
How clear do the verses of the Quran have to be dear brother?
Jesus was a young boy at that time and had received prophet-hood from Allah and the arrogance from elderly priests did not allow them to listen to a young boy and hence their sarcastic remarks. This is simply a case of unwarranted eisegesis on your part (a process of interpreting a text or a part of a text in a manner which supports one's own agendas, biases, presuppositions with a view to introduce this into and onto the text). This is a case of simple confirmation bias.
With respect, there is absolutely no proof from the Quran for your statement.
Assuming the traditional interpretation is correct, why should Marry say "unchaste", because she could very well get married in future and have a son in the wedlock? If someone were to present news to a righteous unmarried virgin that she was going to have a baby. what are the two main contentions in the form of a defence that would come to mind?
- She has not been touched by a man in wedlock.
- That she has not committed fornication (sex outside marriage).
Please note that the Quran does not confirm whether the child had already begun forming in Mary's womb at the point the news was given to her. It only speaks about the news of the birth of a child. Hence it is possible from Mary's remarks, that she had already conceived.
With respect dear brother, I find it incredulous that you are going to this level of discussion to raise a contention.
My question: Did she forget the possibility of getting married in future and having a boy child in the wedlock? It is clear from Mary's reaction of the two statements that she made that this was not a pregnancy that was going to occur in the normal fashion (via wedlock or male intervention).
It appears that you are simply presenting the question because you do not want to accept the clear testimony of the Quran which explicitly confirms the Biblical scriptures and their mainstay belief of the virgin birth of Prophet Jesus.
FINAL THOUGHTS & COMMENTSMy dear brother Abdul Samad (Optimist).
With respect, it is absolutely clear to me given our numerous exchanges on this forum and otherwise that you will go to any lengths to support your theology and a
particular school of thought.You have shown me clear evidence of where you will pick and choose indiscriminately from Biblical traditions when it suits, you will take implicit readings over explicit, you will take clear explicit verses of the Quran and read them metaphorically, you will interpolate without warrant to context, subject clear Arabic words to the most unwarranted root word dissection with a view to support your theological presuppositions, you will continue to make points which have no relevance and create your own questions to the academic questions respectfully being asked.
With utmost respect to you dear brother, this is an unwarranted methodology I would really not want to debate with. I respectfully feel that such a methodology has no consistency, no standard and is tedious at best to respond to.
It is also a waste of both of our time as we have long reached a theological impasse.
I did intimate in my last post to respectfully end this discussion with a view to let the readers decide based on evidence, yet you continued to post without any convincing evidence to simple questions.
I ask you once again politely, kindly and with utmost respect. Given our numerous discussions on this forum, please can you not discuss matters with me which appeal to our fundamental differences in approach to the Quran and theology.
I hope this time, you will heed my polite request.
With respect,
Joseph.