Messages

Dear All,
Assalaamu 'alaikum

The verse (9:99) mentions 'Swalawaati rrasool' is 'spending' (Swadaqa).
Does this means the command in verse 33:56 is for giving Swadaqa ?

[otherwise by the end of 2nd Iddat period itself the marriage will become invalid]

Still I am not getting the concept of initiating a 'third divorce' (In the Illustration of Joseph Islam) to become the marital bond invalid.
According to Qur'an if the couple want to live together as before then they have to take the decision within the 2nd Iddat period, otherwise by the end of 2nd Iddat period itself the marriage will become invalid. Nowhere it is mentioned initiation of a 3rd divorce to end the marriage bond.

"You, you the prophet, if you divorced the women, so divorce them to their term, and count/calculate the term..."(65:1), "So if they reached (completed) their term/time, so hold/grasp them with kindness/generosity or separate from them with kindness/generosity..." (65:2)

[greater]

Dear Brother,
The term Allahu Akbar is un-Qur'anic, nowhere in Qur'an, does we find Allah (Swt), referring to Himself as Akbar. While the term Akbar used in many places in Qur'an to compare things (e.g. 2:219). Akbar does not mean "Great" or "Greatest", it means "greater". To refer to Allah as greater, is to compare Him to something, because "greater" is a comparative term and Allah cannot be compared to anything. Hence when people say Allahu Akbar, they are, in fact, saying Allah is the "greater". Given that, Allah calls Himself as Al-Kabeer, The Incomparably Great, for anyone to then call Him the "greater", is to negate the very name which He gave Himself-Al Kabeer, because "greater" is beyond "great". Further, Allah, cannot have competing names, meaning, He cannot be Al Kabeer, the Great and Akbar, the greater, because how can He be greater than Himself ?. I know / I believe that majority of the people are using the term Allahu Akbar without knowing the meaning but with an intention to glorify Allah as you said. But how one could perform the Swalah without knowing what he is saying? See the verse (4:43) "You, you those who believed, do not approach the prayers and you are intoxicated, until you know what you are saying...".  In addition, nowhere does Allah, as with Akbar, ever refer to Himself as Al Akbar.

Remember The verse 7:33, "Say: the things that my Lord hath indeed forbidden are: shameful deeds, whether open or secret; sins and trespasses against the truth or reason; and that you share/make partners/associate with Allah that for which He has not sent down any authority; and that you say on (about) Allah what you do not know".
When you use Allahu Akbar, you say of Allah that which you do not know and you associate with a name for which He has not given any authorization. i.e. an ayat using that designation in regard to Himself.
Allah has not given us the authority to assign attributes to Him.
2:80 "And they say: the fire shall not touch us but for a few numbered days; Say: Have you taken a promise from Allah, for He never breks His Promise? Or is it that you say of Allah what you do not know?"

[the Iddat period will repeat twice.]

Dear All
Assalaamu 'alaikum.

I am really sorry that I took your time and I am sorry for the wrong Illustration which I gave because of my limited knowledge, And I am thankful to you for giving the circumstance to analyse the verse more deeply.
The change in my explanation is this, the Iddat period will repeat twice.

So for a normal couple the divorce will be as follows (when reconciliation fails in all stages):
Admonition/mutual reconciliation--> 4 month abstention--> Initiation of first divorce (if needed/ fear any dissention, two just persons from both family can help for reconciliation, 4:35)--> completion of Iddat period --> Initiation of 2nd divorce --> completion of 2nd Iddat period (whether they seperating or reuniting, here the witnesses are necessary, 65:2). So by the completion of 2nd Iddat period itself, the final divorce will happen. So there is no point of initiating a 'third divorce' (which is not Qur'anic). In other words, the marriage will become invalid if reunion did not happen by the end of the 2nd Iddat period.
and it will be avg 10 months, for the whole process.

['Wal muthwallaqaathu'(Divorced women)]

Salaam brother,

I am trying my best to to share the concept of Islamic divorce which I understood from the Qur'an.

The usage of the term 'Wal muthwallaqaathu'(Divorced women) (2:228), denotes that the first divorce can be happened even before the Iddat period starts i.e., by the 4 month abstention period itself (only when reunion did not happen) she became a divorced woman (first divorce) and now she is in Iddat period. So from the term 'Al thwalaqu marrathani', one thwalaq is happened, now only one remains and which will happen by the end of Iddat period (if reunion did not happen). In other words, the woman in Iddat period will always be a divorced woman (first divorce) and by the completion of the Iddat period, the marriage became invalid (If reconciliation fails). So there is no point of repeating the Iddat period.
"You, you the prophet, if you divorced* the women, so divorce them to their term, and count/calculate the term..."(65:1), "So if they reached (completed) their term/time, so hold/grasp them with kindness/generosity or separate from them with kindness/generosity and call a witness (two owners) of justice/equality from you, and keep up/take care of the testimony/certification to Allah, that is being preached/advised/warned with it who was believing with (in) Allah, and the Day the Last/Resurrection Day; and..." (65:2)
Here we can observe no any mentioning of repeating of the Iddat period.

* Many translators changed it as "when you divorce women" but the term 'Thwallaqthu' actually is in past tense.

Regards,

[at (the) two ends/edges (of) the daytime and the two approaches from the night]

Dear All,
Assalaamu 'Alaikum,

Firstly, my humble suggestion is that whenever we are reading a verse/ part of a verse(with a complete meaning) from the Qur'an (whether we are reading it as a reminder/ reading as a part of analyzing the verse/ reading it as a part of an article etc.) we should seek refuge with Allah from shaitha'n, the cursed (16:98). And we should start reading it with the name of Allah, The Merciful, The Compassionate (96:1).

Now let us come to the topic,
I saw the article in QM website 'The Five Prayers from The Qur'an, I found some differences in it and I am sharing it here for your consideration.

In the Fajr Prayer section the author stated as follows:-
"The end of the night can be perfectly reconciled with the actual moment at which the sun starts to lighten the sky whilst remaining well below the horizon. The end of the day would be the point at which the sun's rays no longer illuminate the sky."

But how one can determine the end point of day or night precisely ?,
Allah says to the Prophet and believers;
"...and God predestines/evaluates the night and the daytime, He knew that you (will) not count/compute it..."(73:20)

i.e. even the Prophet is not given with such information.

Consider the verse 10:67, It says that the sign of day is being able to see

"He is who made/created for you the night to be tranquil/quiet in it, and the daytime to see, that in that (are) evidences/signs to a nation hearing/listening".

If end of the day is as the author stated, then the point just before the complete disappearance of sun's rays is part of day time, but at this moment we will not be able to see anything, it will be dark. i.e. the above statement will be against the verse (10:67)

Let us analyse some other verses,

1. "And an evidence/sign for them (is) the night, We skin off/uncover from it the daytime, so then they are darkened/in darkness". (36:37)
-i.e. darkness is sign of night.

2. The term "Wazulafan mina llaili" (and two approaches from the night)[11:114] indicates that night includes a part of the twilight period i.e. even though the sun's rays are illuminating the sky, if the location(land) we stand is dark, then it is part of the night (from both sides of night). So we cannot measure when night/day starts/ends precisely.
*in the above mentioned article the word 'two' is absent in translation for the Arabic term 'zulafan' , since the term having an 'alif' at the end, it represents dual (this is my interpretation with my limited knowledge in Arabic grammar), and Al Mawarid dictionary also gives the same.

So the portion of the twilight in which we are able to see is part of day and the remaining is part of night and this night's part from the twilight represents the term 'zulafan mina llaili' (two approaches from the night) i.e. from both the ends, but in the article the term is mistranslated.

Now, let us consider the two verses in which the periods for the Swalah are mentioned. Note that these are the only verses I found which starts with the term 'Aqimisswalatha' (which means keep up the Prayer) and mentioning the periods of the Prayer.

"And keep up the prayers at (the) two ends/edges (of) the daytime and the two approaches from the night; that the goodnesses wipe off/eliminate the sins/crimes, that (is) a remembrance/reminder to the praising/glorifying".(11:114)

"Start/keep up the prayers for the sun's rubbing(with the horizon) /setting to(till) the night's darkness, and the dawn's  Qur'an, that the dawn's Qur'an was/is being witnessed".(17:78)

from the above two verses we can connect the periods like this,

1. Sunset to night's darkness (17:78) equivalent to, one end of the day + one approaching part from the night (11:114)
2. Fajr (17:78) equivalent to, another end of the day + another approaching part from the night (11:114)

So the verse 17:78 gives a better explanation for the verse 11:114.

With this understanding if we are examining the verses 11:114 and 17:78 we can observe that the two verses are repeatedly saying about two prayers (Fajr and Isha') at two periods (dawn, to sunrise + sunset to full night/complete darkness).

So many translations say that the arabic term 'wa' used in 11:114 ('Wazulafan') is, as an indication of separation of time, but when we are analysing Qur'anic texts we can find so many places where the term 'wa' is used as an approachment of simultaneous action, for example see the Surah 113,

1. 'Say: "I seek protection with/by Lord/master/owner (of) the daybreak/creation."
2. "From bad/evil/harm (of) what He created."
3. "And from bad/evil/harm (of an) intense dark night/moon, when/if (it) penetrated through body pores/spread/approached."
4. "And from bad/evil/harm (of) the female magicians/sorceresses/dischargers in the knots."
5. "And from bad/evil/harm (of) an envious with jealousy, when/if he envied with jealousy."

Here, the first two verses itself covers the whole creation, still the 3rd, 4th and 5th verses starts with 'wa' which doesn't mean the mentioned things in 3-5 verses are separate things out of creation.

So  in a day for a believer, the time for the prayers starts from the fajr (i.e. when sunlight first begins to appear)and ends at the complete darkness; more clearly, from the appearance of first ray of light to the disappearance of last ray of light.

In traditional system of Prayers, the time of Isha prayer starts from the complete darkness. This I believe, is not Quranic, because Qur'an says us to pray till night's darkness (17:78) and not from night's darkness.

And the verse 2:238,

"Observe/guard on the prayers, and the prayer the middle, and stand/call to God obeying/worshiping humbly".

Here the verse tells to observe some prayers + the middle prayer, this may be because the prayers other than the middle prayer already mentioned in the verse 24:58 and their periods in 11:114 and 17:78.
Also as the term wusthwa (mid most/justly balanced) is used here, this more likely seems, to perform at the midst of other prayers, i.e. at midday. But when we are considering the traditional system of 5 prayers, we cannot find a justly balanced time for Swalatul wusthwa.
And Allah knows the best.

I request you to share your kind suggestions on my thoughts.
Regards,

Dear All,
Assalaamu 'alaykum

Is it right to act in movie and drama or to watch them?

[And shortening of the Prayer is,]

Dear All,
Assalaamu 'alaykum

I would like to share my understanding about Swalah and it's shortened form.

The main intention of Swalah is clear from The Verse 20:14 and many other Verses are also telling about the purpose and benefits of 'The Swalah' (17:111, 11:114, 29:45, 6:162 etc.)
And when we look through the Verses 100 to 103 from the Surah 'Nisa''(No.4) we can understand that the Verses 100 & 101 are an order/command to the Believers but not for the Prophet (since it mentions about the Believers who gets out from their homes emigrating to Allah and His Messenger), and the next Verse starting with the term 'Wa idhaa kuntha feehim...'which is exclusively for the Prophet, which may indicates that the shortening of the Prayer is applicable only for Believers and not for the Prophet. So, what the Prophet performed at that place may be the real form/structure of the Prayer and not a shortened form of the Prayer. Thus from the Verse 102, we can interpret that, the Swalah contains two units, each unit involves Standing and Prostrating. And bowing is not a separate step rather it is an act of humbleness throughout the Swalah (2:43, 3:43, 77:48). i.e. we may have to bend our head with complete submission and a cognition that we are in contact with our Creator. In Qur'an the verses 3:113 & 50:40 mention what to say/do during standing and prostrating, some other verses (like 32:15) also indicates the glorification in prostration, but nowhere had I found in Qur'an what to say/ do during bowing (so it may not be a separate step in Swalah). And many verses are there which mention bowing and prostration together (9:112, 48:29, 22:77) while some verses mention standing and prostration together(3:113, 4:102, 39:9), but standing and bowing together nowhere I found. And only in one verse I found all the three terms came together (22:26) but here the term r-k-'a expressed as rukka' as an attachment to the term s-j-d and not as a separate act. i.e. here it means, kneeling down to/ bowing to (prostration), otherwise it can come in the form 'Raaki'een' like the the other two terms in the same verse thwaa'efeen and Qaa'emeen. You can connect this verse with 9:112 to get what I am trying to say. [I am trying my best to share my thoughts with you and am sorry that my knowledge in english is limited. I know only few words and a little grammer in english, hope you will manage it.]
And after directing ourselves towards Ka'bah, we can start the Swalah. I think the verses 17:110 & 111 help us to understand what to say and how to say in Swalah better. And nowhere it is mentioned raising the hands and/ or placing it on stomach or saying Allahu Akbar (which is not Quranic), instead Allah tells us to call Him Allah or Al Rahman (17:110). And the verse 4 :102 mention to take weapons/arms during the Swalah in that particular situation, so if the practices like placing hand on the stomach is there in Swalah, then it would have mentioned there, I believe.

And shortening of the Prayer is, performing single unit instead of two (as the Believers did at that situation, 4:101-102 ), but only if, fear the attack/torture from the disbelievers.
And Allah knows the best.

Kindly request you all to share your thoughts.
Regards,

Dear all,
Assalaamu 'alaykum.

Most of the people (including the Illustration of Joseph Islam) telling that divorce is three times and/but if the third divorce is initiated then it is irreversible (i.e. two reversible and one irreversible).
So in such case the couple have to repeat the Iddat period twice to end the marriage bond, but in Qur'an the term used for the iddat period is 'Ajalahunna' (2:231, 232 65:2) which is in singular form, i.e. no repeating of iddat period happens according to Qur'an.

I would like to share my understanding about divorce from the Qur'an.

If any quarrel/indifference arise among couples the first step is admonition(if husband fears nushuz from wife-4:34) or mutual reconciliation (if wife fears nushuz from husband-4:128). After this, if quarrel persists then the husband can decide for abstention of 4 months (4:34-wahjuroohunna fil ma'laji'hi, 2:226) and by this time it is better to reconcile (2:226). If even by the end of the 4 month period they did not return to normal relations then that is the first decision of separation or first divorce [2: 226,227, 4:34-wadhriboohunna; I interpret the term 'wadhriboohunna'in 4:34 refers the first decision of separation. And if needed/ fear any dissension, two just persons from both sides can help for reconciliation/ can witness the first divorce. (here the witnesses are not necessary if things are normal, 4:35).

So I interpret the second part of the verse 4:34 is a mentioning/ a brief description of the divorce process (i.e. till the first decision of separation).
The divorced(first divorce) women have to wait for 3 monthly courses (for those whose periods are regular. And for other women including pregnant s refer-65:4) and during this waiting period also they should try mutual reconciliation (2:228). And so when they reach the end of the waiting period (Iddat period) and reconciliation did not happen, then that is the second and final decision of separation or confirmation of separation i.e., now the individual cannot continue marital life unless the woman marries another spouse. This decision should be witnessed by two just persons from both of their relations/community. (whether they separating or reuniting, here the witnesses are necessary, 65:2). So within the waiting period (iddat period) they have to take the decision, if they want to live together as before.

So for a normal couple the divorce will be as follows (if reconciliation fails in all stages):-
Admonition/mutual reconciliation--> 4 month abstention--> first decision of separation (first divorce) and it will be with or without the presence of two just people from both family (4:35)--> Iddat period of 3 monthly courses--> 2nd/final decision of separation/confirmation of separation (2nd divorce) and it should be only with the presence of two just persons from both family) i.e. avg 7 months for the whole process. i.e. by the iddat period itself the final decision is made, and there is no repeating of Iddat period.
It will be more easy to understand if you are replacing the the word 'divorce' with the term 'decision of separation'.
"The divorce (decision of separation) is two times/twice, so, holding/clinging/refraining (the marriage) with kindness/generosity or divorcing/releasing with goodness". (2:229)

More clearly, the first divorce or first decision of separation is by the end of 4 month abstention period or before the starting of Iddat period and the 2nd divorce or confirmation of separation or 2nd and final decision of separation is by the end of the Iddat period.
And Allah knows the best.

I kindly request you all to share your thoughts.
Regards,

[perform the Prayer when the time is reached/ called.]

Salaam All,
I wish to bring your kind attention here
The verse (62:9-10), commanding that
"If it was called to the Prayer from the Friday/gathering's day, so hasten to Allah's reminder..."
But what actually following by the people are against this, they are conducting a speech/religious speech and the content of the speech are usually from sources other than the Qur'an. How can we sit and listen for such things when Qur'an commanding us to hasten to perform the Prayer when the time is reached/ called. I feel it will be better if people want, they can conduct the speech either before the time starts for the Prayer or after the Prayer.
Thanks.