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If the teachings of Prophets got twisted into something like the fantastic mythologies of Hind gods and goddesses, I guess I should not be surprised if there was a massive cutting and removing of many verses of the Torah.

Salam Joseph.


Surah Ala (87), talks of the previous books like the Torah having mention of the hereafter. But the Torah doesn't talk about the hereafter. I realize the Torah has been changed but it seems surprising that if there were many verses discussing the hereafter, would they all be erased from the Torah?

Can women lead mixed congregational prayers?

Can women pray and fast during menstruation?

[BY MEMBER: Wazir1961]

BY MEMBER: Wazir1961


We, Muslims, widely recite Sura Ikhlas in prayer, dua or at many other occasions. This and many other sura starts with word 'Qul' translated as 'Say'.

Please see analysis:

http://quransmessage.com/forum/members/wazir1961/qul.htm


Point raised:

In other words, we are requesting Allah SWT to say that 'Allah SWT (another one?)' is He who is One and so on.

Questions:

Isn't this scenario problematic?
What is solution to this problem?
We have other two conjugations: 'Aaqoolu' mean 'I say' and 'Naqoolu' mean 'We say'

So, will it not be appropriate to replace word 'Qul' with 'Aaqoolu' when reciting individually and 'Naqoolu' when reciting in congregation?
Note: I am not suggesting in any way to replace word in Quran, I am saying that when we recite this type of sura in namaz, dua or at any other occasion, Will it not proper to be mindful of language?

QM Forum Admin

Dear Joseph,


I was going through your article - BEATING WIFE and also  happened to go through several verses (having darb reference with different meaning) .  But  I feel " BEAT" is the only translation for DARB verb in verse 4:34 - Am I correct ? or is there are other verse/s , which has used DARB to mean BEAT. 

I also noted BEATING/WHIPPING has been used 24:2 / 24:4 with regard to Adultery.  I felt if you are punishing someone , you dont joke of (lightly beating) as translated in 4:34 but whipping, hence the word would have been FAJILDUHUM !!!! 

Correct me wherever possible.

[then only one, or (a captive) that your right hands possess]

Are the muslims as per the ayah below normally permitted to marry more than one wife? Please can you clarify.


4.003
"If you fear that ye shall not be able to deal justly with the orphans, marry women of your choice, two or three or four; but if you fear that you shall not be able to deal justly (with them), then only one, or (a captive) that your right hands possess, that will be more suitable, to prevent you from doing injustice" 


Thanks

Salam

In chapter 2:62 we read:

VERILY, those who have attained to faith [in this divine writ], as well as those who follow the Jewish faith, and the Christians, and the Sabians -all who believe in God and the Last Day and do righteous deeds-shall have their reward with their Sust; and no fear need they have, and neither shall they grieve.

Then in 98:6 chapter we read:

Verily, those who disbelieve from among the people of the Scripture and (from among) those who associate gods with God shall be consigned to the Fire of Gehenna. Therein they shall abide. It is they who are the worst of all creatures.

How do you reconcile the two? Moreover, does this not negate plurality of belief as we read in 5:48:

And unto thee [O Prophet] have We vouchsafed this divine writ, setting forth the truth, confirming the truth of whatever there still remains of earlier revelations and determining what is true therein. Judge, then, between the followers of earlier revelation in accordance with what God has bestowed from on high, and do not follow their errant views, forsaking the truth that has come unto thee. Unto every one of you have We appointed a [different] law and way of life. And if God had so willed, He could surely have made you all one single community: but [He willed it otherwise] in order to test you by means of what He has vouchsafed unto, you. Vie, then, with one another in doing good works! Unto God you all must return; and then He will make you truly understand all that on which you were wont to differ.

On a side note, some Muslims who believe in the theory of abrogation, are quick to defend the above as "Verse A contradicts verses B and C".

However, I am sure there must be a better explanation.

Regards,

Mubashir

Salaam alaikum brother Joseph,

I would like you to shed some light on the subject of Circumcision--- I am aware that circumcision is not mentioned in the Quran. But God commanded Prophet Abraham (PBUH) to have all males of his house hold circumcised and that they should continue doing that to time indefinite. Since we are told by Allah to follow the religion of Abraham(PBUH), does this have a bearing on us and should we circumcise our male children ?

I can't remember the ayat but I do remember reading in the Quran that we will not be questioned about not following the laws of a previous people or book but will be answerable for laws mentioned in the book handed to us only and vice verser. But at the same time we are asked to follow the religion of Abraham(PBUH)--- Does the following of the religion of Abraham(PBUH) mean worshiping only one God (monotheism) or does it mean to follow the method of prayer and all other rituals? Kindly shed some light brother.

Regards & Peace,

[sister in faith]

As-salam alaykum Joseph,
 
I wanted to get your take on the following.

The Qur'an refers to stories that are in the Mishna or Midrash. I heard Jonathan Brown categorize the Mishna as being analogous to hadith....

Please see http://www.islamic-awareness.org/Quran/Sources/

Please scroll down on certain stories like Cain and Abel, Abraham and the idols, etc. I think Cain and Abel is defintely in the Bible but I think some details in the Qur'an match up with some details in the extra Torah literature passed down amongst Jews.

So if the Qur'an is validating stories that were not in the Torah but were in what may be analgous to the hadith, then is not the Qur'an showing some validation of Jewish "hadith" as a source of knowledge and then can not that validation likewise show some validity of Islamic hadith as a source?

Salaam Brother

I recently read that against all those verses that grant freedom of belief to humans, Mr Ghamdi asserts that once a Messenger delivers "convincing proof" of Allah's Message, those addressed have two choices 1. Believe or Deny. In case they deny, they can be punished. Mr Ghamdi says with previous Messengers where their addressees were in greater number than their jamaat, Allah punished the disbelievers by Acts of God (earthquakes, scorching winds, natural disasters, etc.). In case a Messenger had superiority of numbers, Allah punished them by through them by declaring a war.

When a disbeliever rejects belief, it could be for two reasons. 1. He/she is not convinced at all  2. He/she may be convinced but due to some kind of self interest, chooses to reject it.

Since Allah alone knows the genuine reasons, would it not be better to leave such alone under the principle of freedom of belief?

In my humble opinion, there is another dimension to it. Some not only engage in rejection of belief, but in addition they engage in evil behaviour in the society by exploitation of the poor, leading others to unbelief, denying human rights, engaging in fuhasha and Munar, create disorder in the land, engage in degrative moral behaviour, prevent others from believing, etc. If such is a case then declaring a war against those is a different matter.

Wonder what your thoughts are?

Thanks.

Mubashir

Dear Joseph,

What are your reasons for only upholding the Quran in terms of 'religious' guidance?

Brother, I have one question. Will praying for the dead and doing charitable deeds in their name benefit them in anyway?Or does God seal their book once they die. I am fully aware that each one of us will be rewarded/punished according to our own deeds and that Allah is most merciful. Nevertheless, will our prayers help the dead?

A sister in faith.

[QM Forum Admin]

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Yes I agree. Thanks for the clarification.