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Messages - Ali Ashkar

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1
Brother Joseph Islam,
Salamun alikum,

Please see the following verse from the Quran , Chapter 9
"La taqum feehi abadan lamasjidun ossisa AAala alttaqwa min awwali yawmin ahaqqu an taqooma feehi feehi rijalun yuhibboona an yatatahharoo waAllahu yuhibbu almuttahhireena"(9:108)
Meaning : (Prophet)Never stand there. A place of worship which was founded upon Godconsciousness  from the first day is more worthy that thou shouldst stand (to pray) therein, wherein are men who love to purify themselves. Allah loveth the purifiers.

my question is :
Why the quran says only about men(rijalun) "who are love to purify themselves" and not telling about women?
Or can we assume from this context that women were not present in the masjid then?

Regards
Ashkar(India)

2
Brother Joseph Islam,
One a re-reading of the phrase "Illa Ma Khad salafa" from Muhammed Asad's translation I am in doubt.Asad says "except what has come to pass earlier" - i.e., forgiven shall be he who did it before the promulgation of this Qur'anic ordinance or (in the case of a conversion in later times) before one's acceptance of Islam."

So based on this could we necessarily understand practice of taking two sisters at a time as wives meant what was happened before Islam?(reference : your first response in this thread).Could it be after the promulgation of the ordinance in the Quran 4:3?
Moreover some logical reasons also adding hear which i takes as points to ponder whether Jahiliyya arabs practised polygini:
They are:
1.No prophets except Muhammed has seems to be taken more than one wives in the quran.
2.All the non muslims mentioned  by quran is presented along with their single wife(Ex: Firaun,Abu lahab)
3.Jahilya arabs who were money mongers(as aptly depicted by the quran) not to be expected for taking more wives by spending wealth for mahr.

On the basis of above I am inclined to think that it is the Quran which started polyginy and not the pre islamic arabs!
What is your take sir?
 

3
A mistake in my reply . I wrote as "slave girls" but orphan girls I intended. Pls re-read lie that.


4
Thanx brother.
I have noticed it but overlooked the bolded part.
Then can we conclude that polygyny was restricted to not marrying two sisters together and other than these cases Quran allowed polygyny?.Also unlike some muslim apologitics says quranic polygyny was not intended to taking care of orphans?
can we understand then the case in 4:3 as using polygyny(which was prevelant in muslim society) to solve the problem of men not willing to marry slave girls and widows(widows with reference to "yatama alnnisai"-4:127) in those days?

Regards,
Ali Ashkar

5
Brother,
Salamun Alikum
I would like to know if there any instances in the Quran which attests that pre-Islamic Arabs practiced polygamous marriages!

Regards
Ali Ashkar
India

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