Let me humbly repeat, verse 2:118 does not patently disprove that God does not speak to man directly. All it proves is that ignorant folks always have asked for God to speak to them (How is not defined). Verse 42:51 clearly elaborates how God interacts with potentially any human (li-basharin) and one of the methods is via wahi (inspiration - of all kinds). You are restricting this ‘wahi’ to prophetic wahi which is not warranted by the text and then imposing this interpolation on to your understanding of verse 2:118.
Peace brother Joseph,
I did not restrict
li-basharin in 42:51 to refer to wahi received by prophets only. Such an assumption is unwarranted. This was what I said. Bashar includes both oridinay people and prophets (prophets are also human beings like us). The first two modes of communication mentioned in the verse refer to Allah's speech to prophets (being basher) and the third one mentioned in the verse refers to Allah's speech to ordinary people. It need not necessarily mean all the modes of communication should be applicable for all types of bashar at same time since the language used is "or", and therefore, even if one is applicable to ordinary people the verse will not be contradicted (for example, we know our prophet did not receive a communication like a voice being heard from behind a curtain as happened in the case of prophet Moses)
Let me quote 42:51 again, the highligted in
blue refers to communication to prophets and the highlighted in
red refers to communication to oridinary people.
It is not fitting for a man that Allah should speak
يُكَلِّمَهُ اللَّهُ to him
except by inspiration, or from behind a veil, or
by the sending of a messenger to reveal, with Allah's permission, what Allah wills: for He is Most High, Most Wise.(yousuf Ali) (42:51)
Here comes the relevance of 2:118, the complaint of ignorant people as to “why God does not speak
يُكَلِّمُنَا اللَّهُ to them?”. If Allah had used to speak to ordinary bashar directly without a messenger sending to them as you claim based on 42:51, it would not have been mentioned about such people as completely ignorant people following the footsteps of ingnorant people of the past. Your comment that this verse “does not patently disprove that God does not speak to man directly” goes against the verbal meaning of the verse. You are trying to interpolate the verse to conform to your view. To say that it is possible for ordinary people to receive wahi and it is possible Allah speaking to them like a voice heard from behind a curtain, etc is a dangerous interpolation which is a major diversion and corruption in Islam all along. You are indirectly (without intention) promoting such corruption.
So I ask you the first question (of two) once again:
(1) Please can you provide clear unequivocal evidence that God does not inspire His servants directly in whatever way if He so wishes without any interpolations.
Please brother, a simple straight forward answer will suffice.
The following verse is the unequivocal proof for God does not inspire ordinary people
directly (except through a messenger);
"He [alone] knows that which is beyond the reach of a created being's perception,
and to none does He disclose aught of the mysteries of His Own unfathomable knowledge unless it be to an apostle whom He has been pleased to elect [therefor]" (72:27) - Mohammed Asad
Kind regards
Optimist