Messages

196

General Discussions / Re: About wearing shoes while performing Salat

« on: June 16, 2013, 02:23:14 PM »

فَاخْلَعْ نَعْلَيْكَ literally it means ‘take off your shoes’; but Tajul Uroos says that it means ‘wait here’ or stay where you are: like when you tell someone you know to take off his shoes and rest for sometime: Thus the ayat would mean that God told Moses not to be in a hurry, and  to sit calmly and listen. Now your travel (that you were roaming in search of the truth) has come to an end, now you will find your destination easily.  Qurtubi says that here ikhlaa na’laika means complete your family chores i.e. put them out of your mind: he has said that the Arabs also mean family by the word na’al (shoe).

Regards
Optimist

197

General Discussions / The criminals who try to hijack Islam!

« on: June 15, 2013, 10:15:44 PM »

QUETTA, 15 JUNE: In a sinister attack, militants today targeted a bus of a women's university with a bomb and then stormed a hospital where the victims were being rushed to in the Pakistani city of Quetta, killing at least 15 people and injuring more than 20.

A powerful blast ripped through a stationary bus within the campus of Sardar Bahadur Khan Women's University at Brewery Road this afternoon. Students and faculty members were waiting to go home when a bomb planted in the bus went off. Several girls sustained severe burn injuries as the explosion triggered a fire.

Less than an hour later, sounds of explosions and firing spread panic and chaos through the Bolan Medical Complex where most of the wounded had been taken. At least three explosions were heard from inside the hospital.

http://www.thestatesman.net/index.php?option=com_content&view=article&id=461122&catid=37

The whole 'Muslim' world sleeping. What a tragedy!

198

General Discussions / Re: 4:43 intoxicated / overwhelmed by sleep?

« on: June 15, 2013, 09:20:48 PM »

@brother joseph Islam, I notice that Parwez has given the following in his exposition of the Quran for the first part of 4:43

"In order to establish Quranic Order, congregational meetings of Sal’at are necessary. O Jama’at-ul-Momineen do not come to such an assembly with a befogged mind when you do not understand what you say......"

199

General Discussions / Re: 4:43 intoxicated / overwhelmed by sleep?

« on: June 15, 2013, 08:57:54 PM »

Salaam!
Brother Joseph Islam, 
Thank you for your post

This includes any state in which a mind loses clarity whether it is anger, rage, confused thought or judgment, distraction, or any state in which there is mental disequilibrium."

Good point.

@QM moderator,  I respect your comments.
Regards,
Optimist

200

General Discussions / 4:43 intoxicated / overwhelmed by sleep?

« on: June 15, 2013, 05:44:38 PM »

Salaam!

I read the following from Lughat-ul-Quran from Allama Parwez, just posing for a scholarly study and analysis. I will not get involved in any discussion. If anyone would like to post a comment or a rebuttal I would love to just read only.  I feel like, it is something to do with relying on "what is best" when it is susceptible for different interpretations. I may or may not agree the choice of meaning given below for 4:43.

Sukr : To be intoxicated

Raghib (Raghib Isfahani’s famous book “almafrudaat fi gharibul Quran – The sayings of the Quran) says this is a condition which comes between a man and his intellect.  Usually this word is used for intoxication but such condition can also be produced by anger and love {Taj-ul-Uroos, Muheet}.

Ibn Faris (Ibn Fabris’ “muqabeesul Lugha”) says it basically means “surprise”.

Sakar : Alcohol, intoxication (16:67)
Sakrah: Stupor, unconsciousness.   This is a condition of stupor.

The Quran has said Sakaratul Maut in 50:18, which means unconsciousness of death.

Surah An-Nisa says “do not go near salaah when you are Sukara” (4:43).  Here the word Sukara is usually taken to mean stupor, but lissan-ul-arab (compiled by Ibn Mukarram,  died in 711 Hijri) says that it means overwhelming of sleep.

Sukaara has been used for people who are out of their senses due to fear and tribulation (22:2, 75:72)
Sakrah has been used for the stupor that is produced by an overflow of emotions.

as-sakr : to close a canal
sakiratir reeh : the wind became silent
al-ma’us saakir : standing water
sakarul Baab: closed the door (Taj-ul-Uroos, Raghib)
sak-karahu : strangulated him

Surah Al-Hijr, verse 15:15 says our eyes were blinded – sukarat absaaruna - (we have been hoodwinked). 

Recall the said verse of Surah An-Nisa (4:43) which says “when you are overwhelmed by sleep do not go near salaat”.  Here the word Sukara is the plural form of sakran and sakranah

Further ahead it is said in the same verse, “until you know what you are saying”.  This means in a condition (sleepy condition) when you do not even know what you are saying there is no use in praying.  The first thing is that you should understand what you are saying in Salaat.  Only then Salaah is of use. 

201

Islamic Duties / Re: Comments on Five Prayers & Meaning of Sujud - Wakas

« on: June 10, 2013, 05:59:29 PM »

Salaam!

Without interrupting the discussion let me make one post here.

12) Re: 4:102 ...and thou uphold/establish the salat/bond for/to them, then let a group from among them stand/uphold//establish with thee and let them bring their weapons; then when they have SaJaD then let them be behind you (plural)...
Issues:
---it would imply that salat ends upon SJD, but if salat=prayer and SJD=prostration here, then we know traditional Muslim prayer has at least two prostrations per unit of prayer, not one, thus the verse by itself is not clear or does not make sense. The only way for it to make some sense would be to say traditional Muslim prayer normally consists of two prostrations, and since it is during wartime this can be reduced to one prostration. There is no such thing as a unit of prayer according to The Quran, nor do traditional Muslims do it in this manner (i.e. prayer does not end with prostration), but this explanation is just to show what sense could be made of this verse according to the traditional understanding.
---it implies that one must take AND hold their weapons/goods with them (by use of 'tadaAAoo / lay down', later in the verse), but if it is understood as traditional Muslim prayer then physically bowing, kneeling and prostrating like this would be impractical and somewhat dangerous, e.g. prostrating with swords!
---it says if impeded by rain or illness then one can lay down weapons but does not say anything about being excluded from prostrating. So the obvious question becomes what kind of rain/illness would prevent one from carrying weapons yet allow one to physically prostrate? It would seem there is no easy answer to this problem.
---We are also left with another problem, because if we accept that the regular/timed salat involves recitation of AQ which is strongly evidenced by AQ itself, and agreed upon by almost all [see 2:43-45, 4:103, 5:12-13, 7:169-170, 8:2-3, 19:58-59, 29:45, 31:2-7, 33:33-34, 17:78], then we know we are commanded to SJD when it is relayed to us [84:20-22, 19:58, 32:15], but if we were to do this in the regular/timed salat and we know salat ends with SJD according to 4:102 then it would last less than 20 seconds!
Views on these 4 issues?

Dear brother wakas,

I can agree with you if you say the Quranic terms like Salat and SJD have got vast meanings, not limited to physical performance alone.    In the verse you have quoted above, it is definitely something to do with physical performance of Salat and SJD.  The verse is guiding Muslims how to offer physical performance of Salaat and SJD during a war time.   You have raised some questions to show the message is something different (not clear what is the essence of the directions in the verse according to you); unfortunately they are not such logical points.

1. Firstly, one group of Muslims should join the Sal’at first retaining their arms.  It does not necessarily mean they should carry their weapon in their hands.   Even if they place their weapon close to them it can mean carrying the arms.   The point highlighted in the verse is not to neglect the weapon because; while they are involved in Salaat there is possibility of enemy army make a sudden attack.  This point is specifically highlighted in the verse.   They should keep their weapon close to them so as to access instantly in case of any emergency.    And to face any emergent situation there is other group who are not participating in salaat and SJD.  They will offer prayer after the first group finished their prayers.

2. There is no need to be obsessed with the type of prayer they did.   Even a prayer can finish by SJD, however, it is possible that the Quran has highlighted the main aspect of Slaat which is SDJ.   It is something to do with how the Muslim community at that point of time designed a prayer (through mutual consultation) to meet a war like situation.   

3. Allah has given an exception not to retain arms during rain or illness (still it is mentioned that we should be vigilant) to avoid any inconvenience to carrying and keeping the weapon all the time during such time.   It is possible that some people might be unwell to retain the arms but able to pray.  In a rainly situation it could be inconvenient to carry arms.  But one group keeping vigilant without participating in the prayer is still valid (until the other group finishes their prayer)
 

Examples of a twice daily seemingly in Quran itself: 6:52-53, 18:27-28.

This is from one your previous posts.  I believe the Quranic usage of the term “morning and evening”  refers to the whole day and NOT related to any particular time in the morning and in the evening.   Here is the evidence.

"They will not there hear any vain discourse, but only salutations of Peace: and they will have therein their sustenance, morning and evening." (19:62)

Here it does not mean food will be ‘served’ in heaven only in the morning and evening.  It does not mean there is no “Lunch”.

"..and they say: "Tales of the ancients, which he has caused to be written: and they are dictated before him morning and evening." (25:5)

Here it does not mean they are accusing prophet doing something only in the morning time and evening time.

And to God submits whosoever is in the heavens and the earth willingly or unwillingly and like wise do their shadows in the mornings and the evenings. (13:15)

Here it does not refer to shadows only in the morning time and in the evening time. 

In front of the Fire will they be brought, morning and evening: and (the sentence will be) on the Day that Judgment will be established: "Cast ye the People of Pharaoh into the severest Penalty!" (40:46)

Again, here it does not mean they will be brought only in the morning time and evening time!

Therefore, in the verses you have quoted and also the verses like the below where celebrating Allah’s praises are mentitioned, it actually refers to the whole day, not a particular time in the morning and in the evening.

"So Zakariya came out to his people from him chamber: He told them by signs to celebrate Allah's praises in the morning and in the evening. (19:11)

"..In order that ye (O men) may believe in Allah and His Messenger, that ye may assist and honour Him, and celebrate His praise morning and evening. (48:9)

"...and glorify Him morning and evening.(33:42)

Regards
Optimist

202

General Discussions / Re: Daabbah--the beast--what does it mean? Verse 27:82

« on: June 08, 2013, 04:20:11 AM »

Salam,

I believe Brother Joseph Islam has given a good analysis of the verse but I think it stopped short of clarifying the “evil living entity”.

[JI] 027.082 (part) "And when the Word is fulfilled against them..."  If this is understood in light of its previous verse (27:81), then the addressees are those who were present at the time of the Prophet but remained in error.

Yes.  The verse can also have a wider connotation, applicable for all such communities of all times, past, present and future.

[JI] As noted already in the verses cited above (8:22, 8:55, 35:45), the Quran mainly refers to humans as 'Da'aba' in a negative sense. This negative connotation is further supported by the Arabic 'waqa'al-qawlu alayhim' (the word is fulfilled against them).

The point is also clear.   Considering the point that the word "da'aba" it is used for humans in a negative sense, I think 27:82 could be interpreted in this way.  For people who deviate from the right path and deny the truthfulness of Allah’s Laws, when the time is ripe to culminate the end result of their deeds,  what the verse could be telling us that, it will happen someone or some other party or some evil force within the country, or another nation, overpower them and tear them apart surgically which is supported by the following verses.

Say: "He hath power to send calamities on you, from above and below, or to cover you with confusion in party strife, giving you a taste of mutual vengeance - each from the other." See how We explain the signs by various (symbols); that they may understand (6:65)

“If you refrain from struggle (for life and survival), you will face tragic misfortune -- another nation will replace you -- and you will be helpless. These are Allah’s measures.”  (9:39), (11:57).

With regard to 'thukallimuhum' (talking to them), it does not necessarily mean a verbal communication as such, it could also mean a manifestation of facts and truths through visible signs.   Also, thukallim can also mean "to injure" as well as "to talk".  Sher Ali transalated verse 27:82 as "We shall bring forth for them an insect out of the earth which shall wound them because people did not believe in Our Signs"

Regards,
Optimist

PS:  Addab-badah is a big cart made of skins and wood which was used by soldiers to reach the fort of gates to break it down.  A tank of the older days that was used to move slowly and those inside were safe from the enemy’s onslaught. 

203

General Discussions / Re: What does it mean to die twice ?

« on: June 01, 2013, 04:47:01 PM »

Salaam Hope,

Related to the topic, let me give you some more points to think about.  There are certain verses which are normally taken to mean we had a previous life, verses like, 3:81 (taking a pledge from all prophets);  and 7:172 (taking pledge from all human being), etc.  I liked Muhammed Asad transaltion for the said verses;

(7:172) AND WHENEVER thy Sustainer brings forth their offspring from the loins of the children of Adam, He [thus] calls upon them to bear witness about themselves: "Am I not your Sustainer?" - to which they answer: "Yea, indeed, we do bear witness thereto!"139 [Of this We remind you,] lest you say on the Day of Resurrection, "Verily, we were unaware of this"; (7:173) or lest you say, "Verily, it was but our forefathers who, in times gone by, began to ascribe divinity to other beings beside God; and we were but their late offspring: wilt Thou, then, destroy us for the doings of those inventors of falsehoods?"

 139 In the original, this passage is in the past tense ("He brought forth", "He asked them", etc.), thus stressing the continuous recurrence of the above metaphorical "question" and "answer": a continuity which is more clearly brought out in translation by the use of the present tense. According to the Qur'an, the ability to perceive the existence of the Supreme Power is inborn in human nature (fitrah); and it is this instinctive cognition - which may or may not be subsequently blurred by self-indulgence or adverse environmental influences - that makes every sane human being "bear witness about himself" before God. As so often in the Qur'an, God's "speaking" and man's "answering" is a metonym for the creative act of God and of man's existential response to it.

Well, according to me, if  we accept the traditional transalation to mean that this was an incident that took place before the advent of human being,  we will find it difficult to explain  the meaning of the subsequent verse that follows "lest you say on the Day of resurrection, "Verily, we were unaware of this"; or lest you say, "Verily, it was but our forefathers who, in times gone by, began to ascribe divinity to other beings beside God; and we were but their late offspring: wilt Thou, then, destroy us for the doings of those inventors of falsehoods?"    BECAUSE, since NOT ONE human being remembers such a ‘promise’ made before Allah and it does not make any sense to hold anyone responsible for violating the promise.  As per the traditional understanding it would mean that there is no need to send warners and prophets because according to the verse this pledge was sufficient enough NOT TO come up with any excuses like being unaware of the fact or being mislead by forefathers!!  However, Quran says in 17:16 that  Allah will NOT GIVE any punishment to any people or nation or towns UNLESS Allah has sent or appointed a messenger and they are sufficiently warned.

Also, the following is the translation given by Muhammed Asad for 3:81 (normally translated by classical translators to mean an incident that took place when Allah gathered all the prophets at a particular moment of time before the advent of human being).

"AND, LO, God accepted, through the prophets, this solemn pledge [from the followers of earlier revelation]: "If, after all the revelation and the wisdom which I have vouchsafed unto you, there comes to you an apostle confirming the truth already in your possession, you must believe in him and succour him. Do you" – said He – "acknowledge and accept My bond on this condition?" They answered: "We do acknowledge it."Said He: "Then bear witness [thereto], and I shall be your witness." (3:81)

This covenant was that when any subsequent prophet comes validating the claims and promises made in their scriptures, they should accept him and also aid him.  The Quran described the issue in this way to show the unity of prophethood, and uniformity of their teachings.  In fact this verse is simply stating that  this solemn pledge was associated with prophethood of each and every prophet. 

Regards,
Optimist

204

General Discussions / Re: What does it mean to die twice ?

« on: June 01, 2013, 12:18:58 PM »

Allah knows the best.  I am only pondering to the best of my ability.

Nice pondering!

205

General Discussions / Re: What does it mean to die twice ?

« on: June 01, 2013, 03:37:15 AM »

Salam Adil,

"  I am not satisfied with this Tafseer . To die (for which a previous life is necessary) and to be lifeless are two different things.
Did we had a previous life before the life on this earth ?"

I agree with you.  30 years ago I believed the verse was implying reincarnation.  I don't support that notion anymore but like you, I'm not satisfied with the explanations either.  At least we had some kind of existence before with consciousness to make a covenant with God that He is our Lord.

Assalamu alaikum

I believe we are unnecessarily complicating things.   If we assume we had a previous life, it would then mean thrice Allah has given us life NOT twice (which will contradict the verse).   The main problem is that our minds are focused on creation story when we analyse facts (rather than Allah’s plan of evolutionary process).   The verse simply means,  before we were born into this world we were dead and Allah gave us life; then we died and again Allah has given us life. 
Kindly check the following verse; 

“How can you refuse to acknowledge God, seeing that you were lifeless أَمْوَاتًا and He gave you life, and that He will cause you to die and then will bring you again to life, whereupon unto Him you will be brought back?” (2:28)

The above verse explains only these stages (a) we were lifeless and nothing أَمْوَاتًا (b) God created us (c) we died (d) we were given life again.  It is not necessary that there should be a life earlier when Allah says we were أَمْوَاتًا “dead”.  Here the statement ‘How can you reject God when you were dead’ means that THAT was when we were created from mud.   We weren’t alive before it, that was our first time being alive.

We are not to die [again,] beyond our previous death (37:58)

Nor will they there taste Death, except the first death (they had encountered earlier). (44:56)

Look at the following verses;

And who is it that brings out the living from the dead* and the dead from the living? (10:31)

The rain which Allah Sends down from the skies, and the life which He gives therewith to an earth that is dead* (2:164)

A Sign for them is the earth that is dead*; We do give it life, and produce grain therefrom, of which ye do eat(36:33)

It is He Who sendeth the winds like heralds of glad tidings, going before His mercy: when they have carried the heavy-laden clouds, We drive them to a land that is dead* (7:57)

*I believe, in all the above verses ‘dead’ does not necessarily mean the existence of a previous "life".

Regards,
Optimist

206

General Discussions / Re: Blessed is he whosoever is in the fire

« on: May 24, 2013, 02:29:25 PM »

In this sense, God may be telling Prophet Musa (as) that he should now consider himself in a ‘fire of trials, or fre of passion for a Higher purpose/mission’, which may be sweltering hot but will ultimately serve as a blessing for him and the Children of Israel.

It is interesting to note that it was the custom with the Arabs to light a fire atop a mountain when a battle was announced. This was called naarul herb or the fire of war in 5:64.  May be, the fire and the announcement here is a symbolic demostration of beginning of a great struggle against mighty Pharoah and his army and an announcement in the context referring to the victory of those who are associated with the struggle.

207

General Discussions / Re: Blessed is he whosoever is in the fire

« on: May 24, 2013, 12:21:48 AM »

Wassalam,

The fire in that context symbolizes the light of God  and the right path which is mentioned at several places (as Noorullah).   For instance, 9:32 states “They want to extinguish God's [guiding] light with their utterances: but God will not allow [this to pass], for He has willed to spread His light in all its fullness, however hateful this may be to all who deny the truth.”    This is further evident from  the comment of Moses himself when he sees the fire, he says "Behold, I perceive a fire [far away]; I may bring you from there some tiding [as to which way we are to pursue], or bring you [at least] a burning brand so that you might warm yourselves.".   In Quran it has been used in the context  of opposite meaning, for instance, in 5:64 “whenever they fan the flames of war, God douses them”. 

In the above verse Allah in a way telling Moses that His strength and wisdom will become obvious during the struggle that will confront you shortly.

Regards,
Optimist

Edited: Thanks Duster for the post...I was posting some comments without knowing you posted a reply.  I liked the interpreation you quoted. Thanks

208

Prophets and Messengers / Re: Virgin Birth of Prophet Jesus PBUH

« on: May 18, 2013, 04:37:20 PM »

Even the comments from Mary indicate that she is receiving the glad tidings of the news of a boy considerably earlier when she was dedicated to the service of the temple and living the life of a nun.  Why Mary said no man has touched her (no one told her that she is carrying)?  Only a future glad tidings were given to her.  What she actually saying is that she is living a life of nun without being in contact with anyone all along and she further states she is not supposed to committing excesses  breaking temple rules (allow me to focus on this meaning instead of "unchaste" since such an interpretation is not incorrect in the context of the verse and also considering the verbal meaning of the word used). 

Assuming the traditional interpretation is correct, why should Marry say "unchaste",  because she could very well get married in future and have a son in the wedlock?  Therefore, assuming the point as traditionally explained is correct, Mary ought to have replied that how could she have a son when no man has touched her and that she is not unchaste and not going to get married in future. Why Mary focused on being "unchaste" (because no man has touched her is sufficient enough to prove that there is no question of she having a child - if she is referring to her past)?  My question: Did she forget the possibility of getting married in future and having a boy child in the wedlock?

There is an interesting twist even assuming the meaning is actually "unchaste".  It means she is saying that no one has touched her and there is no question of she going to be unchaste and have a relationship with any other person (implying that she is NOT supposed to marry).

209

Prophets and Messengers / Re: Virgin Birth of Prophet Jesus PBUH

« on: May 18, 2013, 01:02:27 PM »

If according to you, 'baghiy' in this context means a transgression such as participating in intimacy when one has renounced the world, then are you seriously suggesting that based on the above verse Mary's mother also never transgressed the boundaries of intimacy as she was a nun? Then how did Mary's mother conceive Mary?

Salam,

It was the temple rule that someone dedicated to the service of the temple should not marry.  Mary's mother was not a nun.  You quoted the following verse.

019.027-28
"Then she came to her people with him, carrying him (with her). They said: O Mary! surely you have done a strange thing. O sister of Aaron! Your father was not a wicked man nor was your mother unchaste (baghiy)"

Here also "unchaste" is not the apt translation.  The Jews were saying that Mary's mother always respected the clerical discipline and never revolted against the temple rules.   
 

As you are aware, the root word, Al bagh yi, means the wish to exceed the middle path (whether one can actually do so or not): al bagh yo means too much rain: exceeding: baghatis samai the cloud exceeded its limit: i.e.  rained a lot: these are the basic meanings of this word.  In 3:6 this word is used as ibtegha-al fitnah meaning wish to exceed to create fitna.   There is absolutely no reason Jews had a case that Mary indulged in adultery. Jews were accusing her revolting against the clerical discipline that a nun shoul not marry.  Actually the Quran itself testifies that Mary guarded her chastity (66:12), that is, in spite of severe circumstances and provocation from the rabbis in the synagogue, as you may note, the rabbis even threw lots to take possession of Mary, however, Mary resisted all such provocation and she guarded her chastity. They should have no case against Mary for indulging in adultery.  They are accusing her for violating the temple rules and getting married and coming back to them with Jesus. 

The idea of renouncing the world including intimacy is even rebuked in the Quran with the issue of monasticism (57:27). You have basically accepted a Christian tradition and imposed it on the Quranic narrative.

When Quran states certain facts we assume things are happening in a flash without there being considerable time gap between the incidents.  It was man made temple rule that someone dedicated to the service of the temple should not marry, however, when Mary came to know about the true teaching she revolted against temple rules and left the life of a nun and started to live a normal life. She had to even leave the place for a considerable period of time.  Kindly note she is coming back to them after a long period of time, until Jesus became a young boy.  In reply to all their allegations,  Mary, without saying anything else, directed them towards Jesus to get their answers from him.  The elderly priests who were extremely proud of their priesthood arrogantly asked should they talk to one who a little boy in the cradle (sarcastically).  This actually does not mean that Jesus was an infant at that time.  Jesus makes a speech and in this speech he is defending also his mother 19:32.  Jesus was a young boy at that time and had received prophet-hood from Allah and the arrogance from elderly priests did not allow them to listen to a young boy and hence their sarcastic remarks.

Anyhow, I read your comments with respect. These are not important issues.  And therefore, there is no problem if we disagree.

Regards,
Optimist

210

Prophets and Messengers / Re: Virgin Birth of Prophet Jesus PBUH

« on: May 18, 2013, 03:07:42 AM »

THE VIRGIN BIRTH OF PROPHET JESUS (pbuh)
http://quransmessage.com/articles/virgin-birth%20FM3.htm

I hope this helps, God willing.
Joseph.

The Quran makes absolutely no attempt to challenge the mainstay Christian understanding resonating the same sentiments verbatim.
 Quran Surah 19
19. He said: "I am only a Messenger from your Lord, that I may bestow upon you a righteous son."
20. She said: "How can I have a son, when no man has touched me, nor am I unchaste?"
21. He said: "So (it will be), your Lord said: 'That is easy for Me: And so that We will make him a sign to mankind and a mercy from Us and it is a matter decreed."

Assalamu alaikum !

I believe the question why Allah did not refute the general Christian belief regarding the birth of Jesus is rather unnecessary.  There could be different reasons (1) To make a strong objection for an issue which is not related the main teachings of Islam is not required and rather unnecessary; (2) There is possibility of people unnecessarily focusing on unimportant issues losing their focus on the main issues; (3)  Such strong objection can make some people not to even consider the truthfulness of the teachings of the Quran (4)  Using such terms and expressions susuptible for different interpretation in such cases, (i) it can attract people towards Islam to study and evaluate its teachings (ii) it is possible for people who apply further thought and contemplation to come to the correct understanding of the verses at a later stage (even if it does not happen, it is not going to affect their faith).  I think this is one of the reasons why Quran is so amazing.  I can tell you couple of such examples from Quran itself.

1. You and I believe in the evolution theory based our own deductions from different verses of the Quran.  However you will agree with me there are several verses in the Quran, which if we take into account in literal sense, they would ’support’ creation story.  My question:  Why Quran did not strongly refute the Christian and the general belief in explicit terms but used such terms and expression susuptible to be interpreted to confirm creation theory? Also the same question in a different way.  Why Quran did not use such terms and expressions which can completely confirm without any doubt the theory of evolution?   

2. You and I believe that the issue of prophet Ibrahim’s preparation to sacrifice his son was based on “a dream” considering it as a definite direction from Allah.  My question: Why in the Quran it is not explicitly mentioned that it was not a divine revelation and why Quran used such expressions like “saddaqat ruiya” and such terms which are susceptible for different interpretations without being very plain and clear?

To seek support from implicit verses of the Quran such as 3:59 and 6:88 in order to 'imply' a rejection of the mainstay understanding of a community supported by explicit verses remains wholly without warrant.

I can understand your difficulty and inability to explain 3:59 in view of the fact that we believe in Evolution as master plan of Allah for creation.

The Quran must be allowed to speak and not be wrought into an understanding that supports one's own views. Otherwise, one would become guilty of 'eisegesis' (personal interpretation of a text using one's own ideas) instead of a more critical, objective 'exegesis'.

This I can agree with you and it should be applicable for everyone.  Let us closely look at some of the points related to certain verses.

1.  The traditional translators normally translate verse 19:20 to mean as Mary saying, "How can I have a boy while no man has touched me and I have not been unchaste?"  Actually the translation “unchaste” is not the proper translation in the context.   Mary is actually saying that she has been leading a pious life without allowing anyone to touch her and that she is living like a nun, and the law is that a nun should never marry and she has not broken that law.  The basic meaning of the root word, Beh, ghain, yeh is to exceed the limit.  Bagha alaih is to commit excess against or  on someone: to oppress someone: to be high handed against somebody: and be jealous of someone.  The word has come in relation to committing excesses at different places in Quran, for instance, in verse 2:173, after discussing ‘haram and halal’ in edibles it says: fama-niz tarro ghaira baghin wala a’adin fala isma alaihi in the sense of transgressing the due limit.. It is true in verse 24:33 the word alibgha-o is used for illegal fornication which is equal to transgressing the limit, however, in the context of the verse 19:20 Mary is saying that she has no intention to break the law (and not particularly for fornication) and therefore there is no question of her mating with anyone.  This was during the time when Mary was living a celibate life as a nun, however, when she came to know of the teachings of God, she left the life of a nun and started living a normal life with the child.

2. It was a general custom that among the father and the mother, whoever is more famous, children are addressed and attributed to the person who enjoyed more fame.  Mary had created a revolution by breaking the customs and restrictions imposed by the synagogue and the system of monastery; however, her husband (whose name has come in the bible as yousuf e najjar) did not possess any fame.  This is why the prophet Jesus has been addressed as Ibne-e-maryam.   (In the case of prophet Moses there is a mention of umm-e-moosa.  Also prophet Moses addresses prophet Aron as yabna umma (O son of my mother!)

3. The Quran has presented the life of Mary as a revolutionary life.  The Jews had given the monasterial life of the synagogue a very high position and its customs and restrictions were contrary to Allah’s Deen. In early days, only the monks (male) used to devote themselves for the synagogue, but later the girls also started entering as nuns therein on the condition that girls had to spend their entire life as nun without getting into any marriage alliance with anyone.  The Jewish monks and priests were so powerful those days that only for the confirmation of a death sentence they had to refer it to the roman emperor.    The synagogues were centers of all kinds of debauchery and the virgins were put on the auction block to be sold to the highest bidder for deflowering which is amply evident from the verse in the Quran which it states, “O Mohammad! Neither were you there, when the rabbi’s were fighting inside the temple for Mary’s sponsorship, nor when the lottery was being played to decide that issue.”  Every rabbi wanted to take her in his own personal charge (perhaps to enjoy her virginal charm privately, without sharing it with anyone else). Under such severe and adverse circumstances, Mary broke the man made restrictions and decided to spend a married life as per her will (it may be after knowing about the good news of birth of a son which made her realize the fact that such restrictions imposed in the synagogue is completely against the actual teaching of the religion).    Such a step required great courage and patience in the conditions where she lived.   

4. Allah says in the verse 21:91, ‘We made Miriam role model for the rest of the humanity, for safe-guarding her chastity’.   The term used in the verse is important to notice, which is Ahsanat-frjaha.  The Qur’an further elucidates the point in the verse 66:12 as Ahsanat-frjaha, and this term refers to Miriam guarding her chastity in the fortress of wedlock.   The roots of the word Hasan  ن-ص-ح are ha- sawd-noon. It signifies something unapproachable, preserved and guarded, such as a fortress or a pearl protected within the soft interior of a hard and strong shell, resting at the sealed.   In the Qur’an, this word appears at various places, giving the following meanings with reference to the context:  The married women, wedlock, chaste females and the ones who stay away from what is illegal. Additionally, it symbolizes a ‘marriage lock’ to guard a married woman’s chastity/honor (4:24-25, 5:5, 24:4 and 23). In a wider sense, it points to the safety of the human body with armor, in the battles of medieval times (21:80). This word is also used for storing wheat in a safe place (12:48). Consequently, the word "Hasan" primarily identifies a woman, protecting herself from indecency. It also qualifies the one who guards her virginity before marriage and remains chaste after wedlock, obeying Allah’s sexual code in both pre and post-marital states.     

5. When Mary expressed shock how can she have a son (her celibate position does not allow her to marry any person and it is the biggest hurdle in the matter of her wedding), the answer given to her was this.   “It will happen in accordance with Allah’s law of Kun and Fauakun (it means according to the procreation law). This is Allah’s immutable law for child birth and when any one starts action for something according to His law then the initiation of the process or action starts forthwith.  It is known as Kun   and after set terms and times, when it reaches to its pinnacle of completion is called Fauakun (Fauakun means when a process reaches to its perfection by passing through its various evolution stages)  in Quranic term.’   The term Ka-la-Kazalika- Allah-ho means that this child will bear according to Allah’s laws of procreation. It means you will enter the contract of wedlock with someone and then you will have a son. The same term Quran has been used for Zachariah, when he pleaded to Allah that how come he will have a son due to the fact that his wife’s chronic sterility problem and that he himself  is the stage of advanced age (19:08.).  Allah responded to Zachariah in the term of Ka-la-Kazalika- Allah- Ho yes you will get the son according to our procreation laws.   Please note, Zakariya’s wife’s barrenness was cured (21:90).   Similarly, in verse 51:28-30, the term “Ka-la-Kazalika- Allah- Ho the Quran has used for the wife of Abraham. According to which, even in old age woman can conceive a child if her fertility system is normal and healthy. Therefore the term “Ka-la-Kazalika- Allah- Ho means it will happen according to Allah’s natural law of procreation.

6. After the wedlock, Mary became pregnant with (Jesus) like all other women do, giving birth to children.  In the verse 66:12, the Qur’an has used the expression Fanafakhna-rooh-hunna   and the classical exposition of the expression is, “a spirit was breathed into her”.  However, in the verse 32:7-9, the Qur’an expounds the real meanings of the term Fanafakna-rooh-hunna.   After elucidating different stages of creation, Allah says, “…..He fashioned him in due proportion, and breathed into him  something of His spirit (Fanafakh feehi min roohi).  And He gave you (the faculties of) hearing and sight and feeling (and understanding): little thanks do ye give!”.    Here this term signifies  that Allah endows every embryo with all human faculties during its growth in the womb that shapes its individual personality and turns it into a male or a female baby.   To associate this term exclusively for Jesus alone and to explain that a spirit was specifically breathed into Mary alone (as if to show something miraculous is happening in Mary's case) is totally unwarranted.

Regards,
Optimist