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General Discussions / Re: On Surah Al-Tahrim Verse 3
« on: August 20, 2012, 04:29:04 PM »The question posed by the ignorant folk as to why God did not 'speak' to them could encompass an expectation of a direct form of address where God could be heard.Salam,
Do you then agree (at the least) that the second mode of communication, a voice is heard from behind a curtain in 42:51, is not applicable for ordinary human being? It is clear from their question that the ignorant people would be satisfied with a revelation from Allah directly to them even as received by prophet himself (without a voice could be heard), for their expectation of “speech” from Allah.
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There is no reason to 'restrict' what was meant by their expectation of 'speech' from God. If you imply a 'restriction', then once again the burden of proof is with you to provide the evidence for the restricted interpretation.
I did not restrict what was meant by their expectation of “speech” from God. To make my point clear again, the ignorant people were looking for direct communication from Allah to them (similar like the normal wahi received by the prophet or a voice heard from behind a curtain as happened in the case of Moses) and Allah strongly refutes such a request as complete ignorance, imitating ignorant people of past. But if you say (not very clear from your comments) it is something related to “God could be heard only” they were demanding (not even a direct wahi similar like the prophet received) you will be restricting their expectation.
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Verse 42:51 simply elaborates how good speaks to man. This verse does not confirm that God does not speak to man directly
I agree with you verse 42:51 simply elaborates how good speaks to man (includes ordinary people and the prophets). I am pointing out verse 2:118 where the ignorant people say “Why does God not speak unto us” to confirm that God does not speak to man (ordinary people) directly.