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General Discussions / Re: The difference between 2nd person plural and 3rd person plural is arbitrary?
« on: April 04, 2018, 09:24:37 PM »If the Arabs did not need diacritical points, how would they know if 9:28 is to read as ‘lā taqrabū’ and not ‘lā yaqrabū’?
Shalom / peace.
The same way Arabs can read newspapers today without diacritical marks.
.....The same way even a child that reads Urdu can understand the difference between words without diacritical marks and read it correctly given the context.......Also the Quran was first an ORAL transmission. Allah inspired it and didn't put it on a tablet. The ORAL transmission was that transmitted through Hafiz (memorisers) just like today ....The ORAL transmission was then noted in parallel. Only later, were diacritical marks introduced to help NON ARABS. By then the READING was well established.
Like today, although an Arab could probably understand the Urdu script, they may need diacritical marks to pronounce it correctly. Same way an Urdu reader may understand the Arabic script but may need diacritical marks to pronounce it correctly.
>>>Please see below the 2 links from brother Joseph
http://quransmessage.com/forum/index.php?topic=409.msg1210#msg1210
http://quransmessage.com/forum/index.php?topic=681.msg2590#msg2590