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[my Sustainer]

Salam all

before yesterday i was sure, that for a believer in Allah it is not permissible to call anybody beside Allah as Rabb.
After a discussion with my husband who says that this is normal and we can see this fact also in the Arabic language , the sustainer or provider for the household is transcribed with the same word...
I read also trough the Sura Youssuf and there we can see this very good:


translation Muhammad Asad

12:36 NOW two young men happened to go to prison at the same time as Joseph. One of them said: "Behold, I saw myself [in a dream] pressing wine." And the other said: "Behold, I saw myself [in a dream] carrying bread on my head, and birds were eating thereof." [And both entreated Joseph:] "Let us know the real meaning of this! Verily, we see that thou art one of those who know well [how to interpret dreams].
12:37 [Joseph] answered: "Ere there comes unto you the meal which you are [daily] fed, I shall have informed you of the real meaning of your dreams,37 [so that you might know what is to come] before it comes unto you: for this is [part] of the knowledge which my Sustainer has imparted to me. "Behold, I have left behind me the ways of people who do not believe in God,and who persistently refuse to acknowledge the truth of the life to come;

12:38 and I follow the creed of my forefathers Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. It is not conceivable that we should [be allowed to] ascribe divinity to aught beside God: this is [an outcome] of God's bounty unto us and unto all mankind39 -but most people are ungrateful.
12:39 "O my companions in imprisonment! Which is more reasonable:40 [belief in the existence of numerous divine] lords, each of them different from the other"41 -or [in] the One God, who holds absolute sway over all that exists?
12:40 "All that you worship instead of God is nothing but [empty] names which you have invented42 - you and your forefathers- [and] for which God has bestowed no warrant from on high. Judgment [as to what is right and what is wrong] rests with God alone-[and] He has ordained that you should worship nought but Him: this is the [one] ever-true faith; but most people know it not43
12:41 "[And now,] O my companions in imprisonment, [I shall tell you the meaning of your dreams:] as for one of you two, he will [again] give his lord [the King] wine to drink; but as for the other, he will be crucified, and birds will eat off his head. [But whatever be your future,] the matter on which you have asked me to enlighten you has been decided [by God]."
12:42 And [thereupon Joseph] said unto the one of the two whom he considered saved: "Mention me unto thy lord [when thou art free]!" But Satan caused him to forget to mention [Joseph] to his lord, and so he remained in prison a few [more] years.
12:43 AND [one day] the King said:44 Behold, I saw [in a dream] seven fat cows being devoured by seven emaciated ones, and seven green ears [of wheat] next to [seven] others that were withered. O you nobles! Enlighten me about [the meaning of] my dream, if you are able to interpret dreams!"
12:44 They answered: " [This is one of] the most involved and confusing of dreams,45 and we have no deep knowledge of the real meaning of dreams."
12:45 At that, the one of the two [erstwhile prisoners] who had been saved, and [who suddenly] remembered [Joseph] after all that time,46 spoke [thus]: "It is I who can inform you of the real meaning of this [dream]; so let me go [in search of it]."

Note: all the bold words are RABB in the Arabic

Question:

1. 12:39"O my fellow inmates, are various lords better, or God, the One, the Omniscient?"   here we see
يصىحبى السجن [b]ءارباب[/b] متفرقون خير ام الله الوحد القهار
is this the plural from Rabb?? i asked my son, he said it is the plural from Rabib?

2. then we can conclude, that the word Rabb can be used for Sustainer / Provider/(teacher) and this is permissible? And that is only not permissible to take an ILAHI other as the One (ALLAH) ?

thank you all for help peace

[it]

Salam
i read a little bit about the compilation from the quran and i struggled over the verse 80.11


kallā
Nay!      AVR – aversion particle
حرف ردع
(80:11:2)
innahā
Indeed, it      ACC – accusative particle
PRON – 3rd person feminine singular object pronoun
حرف نصب و«ها» ضمير متصل في محل نصب اسم «ان»
(80:11:3)
tadhkiratun
(is) a reminder,      N – nominative feminine indefinite (form II) verbal noun
اسم مرفوع
(80:12:1)
faman
So whosoever      REM – prefixed resumption particle
COND – conditional noun
الفاء استئنافية
اسم شرط
(80:12:2)
shāa
wills      V – 3rd person masculine singular perfect verb
فعل ماض
(80:12:3)
dhakarahu
may remember it.      V – 3rd person masculine singular perfect verb
PRON – 3rd person masculine singular object pronoun
فعل ماض والهاء ضمير متصل في محل نصب مفعول به
(80:13:1)
fī
In      P – preposition
حرف جر
(80:13:2)
ṣuḥufin
sheets      N – genitive feminine plural indefinite noun
اسم مجرور
(80:13:3)
mukarramatin
honored,      ADJ – genitive feminine plural indefinite (form II) passive participle
صفة مجرورة
(80:14:1)
marfūʿatin
Exalted,      ADJ – genitive feminine plural indefinite passive participle
صفة مجرورة
(80:14:2)
muṭahharatin
purified,      ADJ – genitive feminine plural indefinite (form II) passive participle

(source: corpusquran.com)

we found in 80.11: inna- HA Indeed, it
and after    80.12 : dhakarahu may remember it.
in 56.73 we see the word jalnaha with the Pron. Ha (fem.)which refers to the fire.

the first pronom is feminine and the second masculine the two translated with it (as reverse to the Quran?)
After we found the term suhufi- the sheets; they are plural too and feminine
those sheets were written from  scribes Honorable and virtuous.( Kiramin bararatin)80:16

1 question: who are those scribes?? the interpretation from Joseph point to companions from the Prophet but maybe they are the angles? Because the sheets they are purified, honored and exalted- points to the kitab maknun in 56.78.
and in 56.79  La yamassuhu illa almutahharoona which none but the pure [of heart] can touch:
(but in Sura al A'la we found the suhufi from Ibrahim wa Musa-??)

the Quran is mentioned in 56.77  this Qur'an is a Noble Monograph. Innahu laqur-anun kareemun
the Quran inna-hu (masculine) is IN the kitabun maknun 56.78 which can only touches the pure ones.= the angles?

2.question: the sheets are from the kitabun maknun by Allah or on earth?
3. question:the innaha in 80.11 revers to what?

Conclusion;
- Quran in not the same as al kitab or al kitab maknun
-the Suhufi are the written revelations from God- the Quran is the purified form from the old sheets which were written from noble scribes?

I hope the post is not to much confusing.. always hard to write my thoughts in English

peace

Salam
i have a question about Sura al baqara. We found there the instruction for  fasting. We read in 2.187  uhilla lakum lailata assiyam rafathu ila nisaaikum...
lailata is in singular- how this is possible, when the shahr ramadan contents many nights? Or is this 'normal' arabic grammatic??
thanks for clarification
peace

Salam
i read an interesting question in another forum- please anybody can bring light in the dark?? thanks!

Salaam,

I have a question about Sura AlRahmaan. InshaAllah someone can help me out.
Please take a looki at the next verses.

55:62  وَمِن دُونِهِمَا جَنَّتَانِ
55:63  فَبِأَيِّ آلَاءِ رَبِّكُمَا تُكَذِّبَانِ
55:64  مُدْهَامَّتَانِ
55:65  فَبِأَيِّ آلَاءِ رَبِّكُمَا تُكَذِّبَانِ
55:66  فِيهِمَا عَيْنَانِ نَضَّاخَتَانِ
55:67  فَبِأَيِّ آلَاءِ رَبِّكُمَا تُكَذِّبَانِ
55:68  فِيهِمَا فَاكِهَةٌ وَنَخْلٌ وَرُمَّانٌ
55:69  فَبِأَيِّ آلَاءِ رَبِّكُمَا تُكَذِّبَانِ
55:70 فِيهِنَّ خَيْرَاتٌ حِسَانٌ

The question is, why this switch 
Anyone any ideas.

Salaam,

There are still some questions.

55:68 فِيهِمَا فَاكِهَةٌ وَنَخْلٌ وَرُمَّانٌ

According to Corpus Quran we have the following:

فَاكِهَةٌ   : nominative feminine indefinite noun
وَنَخْلٌ    : nominative masculine  indefinite noun
وَرُمَّانٌ    : nominative masculine  indefinite noun



55:70 فِيهِنَّ خَيْرَاتٌ حِسَانٌ

According to Corpus Quran

فِيهِنَّ    : third person feminine plural  object pronoun



If فِيهِنَّ    is referring to all 3 of them how is this possible? Can someone please give me similair usage like this please.


At the moment I have two explanations:
1) فِيهِنَّ    is only referring to  فَاكِهَةٌ    . As that is the only feminine word.
2) Who gave the genders to words? And how did they derived them? With other words, are وَنَخْلٌ     and وَرُمَّانٌ     in The Quran masculine?


I came across this verse:
26:148  وَزُرُوعٍ وَنَخْلٍ طَلْعُهَا هَضِيمٌ

According to Corpus Quran
وَنَخْلٍ   :  genitive masculine  indefinite noun
طَلْعُهَا   :  third person feminine  singular possessive pronoun

How is this possible?
It looks to me without question that َنَخْلٍ   is feminine, unless someone comes with something I overlooked.

If no one can come up with an explanation then I am afraid that we have to investigate every word of The Quran for it's gender.

Last question, to what is فِيهِنَّ   referring in 55:56?
55:56 فِيهِنَّ قَاصِرَاتُ الطَّرْفِ لَمْ يَطْمِثْهُنَّ إِنْسٌ قَبْلَهُمْ وَلَا جَانٌّ

Salaam and thanks to anyone who tries to help.

Salam and peace

[these are my daughters, they are purer for you,]

Salam all

i have a question about 11.78


The Monotheist Group   
11:78 And his people came rushing towards him, and before it they were committing sin, he said: "My people, these are my daughters, they are purer for you, so be aware of God and do not disgrace me regarding my guests. Is there no sane man among you?"
Muhammad Asad   
11:78 And his people came running to him, impelled towards his house [by their desire]:108 for they had ever been wont to commit [such], abominations. Said [Lot]: "O my people! [Take instead] these daughters of mine: they are purer for you [than men]!109 Be, then, conscious of God, and disgrace me not by [assaulting] my guests. Is there not among you even one right-minded man?"
Rashad Khalifa   
11:78 His people came rushing; they had grown accustomed to their sinful acts. He said, "O my people, it would be purer for you, if you take my daughters instead. You shall reverence GOD; do not embarrass me with my guests. Have you not one reasonable man among you?"
Shabbir Ahmed   11:78
And the most iniquitous among his people came rushing to Lot. (They wanted the visiting messengers to approve their behavior.) Lot said, "O My people! Your wives, who are like my daughters, are permitted for you. Be mindful of God, and do not humiliate me in the presence of my guests. Is there not a single upright man among you?"
Transliteration   11:78
Wajaahu qawmuhu yuhraAAoona ilayhiwamin qablu kanoo yaAAmaloona alssayyi-ati qalaya qawmi haola-i banatee hunna atharulakum faittaqoo Allaha wala tukhzooni fee dayfeealaysa minkum rajulun rasheedun
   
11:78 وجاءه قومه يهرعون اليه ومن قبل كانوا يعملون السيات قال يقوم هولاء بناتى هن اطهر لكم فاتقوا الله ولا تخزون فى ضيفى اليس منكم رجل رشيد

First, it does not mean how often translated, "here you have my daughters," but "these are my daughters." Either way is implied mostly so would the daughters offered to the aggressors. The second part is accordingly commonly translated as "they are purer for you." But why should the messenger of God offer his daughters to the wrongdoer with the words: they are purer for you??

So, what is the correct translation? And what God want tell us with this story??

the example from Lot it is not about homosexuality - it is about open fahischa - those men were so little gay as you and I. those men  didn't noticed the women  because the women for them was nothing -lower creatures
Homosexuality is a matter between two individuals who love each other.(coupled with the feeling, to not  find the own gender attractive)
The described Sex-orgies in  this Sura has to do with sexual perversion as we see it today everywhere (sex without a relationship, sex with animals, with children, with men and women, etc.)

So i think God point to the fact, that
1. Love and respect must be an integral part of Sexuality - and the Sexuality only as an integral part  between two human who love each others. (and should be married)
2. To be married and have children is the normal
3. The fahischa from Lots people is less the actual homosexuality, but rather the unbridled perversion and not respectful of women (who God clearly has created as biological mothers and essential partners for men )

thanks for reading and your thoughts??
peace

Salam all
i see this question in an other forum -and i wish to ask you here:

23:50 And We made the son of Mary and his mother a sign, and We gave them refuge on high ground, a place for resting and with a flowing stream.

In the above verse by "high ground, a place for resting and with a flowing stream."  does God mean  a particular location on earth or paradise?

Muhammad Asad's end note interpret this as paradise

Muhammad Asad - End Note 26 (23:50)
I.e., in paradise. The expression (ma'in) signifies "unsullied springs" or "running waters" (Ibn Abbas, as quoted by Tabari; also Lisan al-Arab and Taj al-'Arus), and thus symbolizes the spiritual purity associated with the concept of paradise, the "gardens through which running waters flow".


Sabbir Ahmed's translaton interpret as Can,aan where Jesus and his mother migrated after attempted crucifixion. Which means Jesus was still alive after crucifixion ?

23:50 And We made the son of Mary and his mother a symbol (of Our grace). We gave them abode on a land abounding in hills, affording rest and security and fresh water springs (as they migrated from Can'aan after the attempted crucifixion).


Ahmadiyya sect(A movement started by Mirza Gulam Ahmad of Qadian) interpret this as  Kashmir in india where Jesus migrated after surviving the crucifixion according

Also I came across some documentary which try to prove that Jesus might have migrated to Kashmir in india after surviving crucifixion.

Or was it the birthplace of Jesus described in Sura Marjam where God Made "The Son of Mary and his Mother" a sign ?
I tend to the first statement of M.Asad. What are your thoughts on this?
Salam

[in the worship]

Salam

The Arabic word 'Mushrikeeen' means polytheists.  It comes from the root word 'SH-R-K' which is the practice of attributing other partners in the worship of the one true God of the universe. Calling upon others along with God or attributing intermediaries, intercessors, companions, God powers and characteristics which are only reserved for the Almighty Lord to any other being, is also tantamount to worship.

I have long been repeatedly stumbled over the same issue,  that would be: there is indeed Shirk in Worship[?
After careful study I conclude that there is no Shirk in Worship.
The Shirk describes itself as  give God a partner or wife or children, to ascribe people or Ginn  Divine attributes.
Therefore, it is not Shirk to make statues, as we can see from the example of Solomon. Therefore it is not Shirk, to bow in front of a cube, which is the symbol of a house of GOD (as churchs or mosques generally) ,(of course, in the knowledge that God dwells not in that cube.

So it is not Shirk, when Muslims raise their prophet into a high rank, they do not deify him as GOD . But clearly shirk if it is assumed that Jesus= God  or Mary= Mother of God.  (this against the clear statement from Sura al Ihlas) Equally shirk if we assume that there are a multitude of gods,and  one of them is the boss (because then we implies, that all gods can create or are has power over all living things. etc.) But not shirk if you take a good believer as 'saint' -certainly not very favorable compared to God, but not shirk
what is your thoughts? thank you and salam

Salam
i see this question in an other forum and i like to know your thoughts about it:

Verse 17:59

وَمَا مَنَعَنَا أَن نُّرْسِلَ بِالْآيَاتِ إِلَّا أَن كَذَّبَ بِهَا الْأَوَّلُونَ

Transliteration : Wa ma manaAAana an nursila bialayati illa an kaththaba biha alawwaloona, ...

Yusuf Ali: And We refrain from sending the signs, only because the men of former generations treated them as false.

This  translation implies that God initially sent Signs / miracles to convert people and had an intention to send more signs but He disappointed to learn that His signs did not work as expected. So, He stopped sending them.

Now see translation below:

Reformist Group: The rejection of previous people did not stop Us from sending the signs. 

Endnote (Page: 206): Traditional translations render the meaning of "Ma" as a relative pronoun rather than a negative particle, "What stopped us from sending...."
Source: https://www.irshadmanji.com/PDFS/ReformistTranslation.pdf

Now look at word to word translation:
http://corpus.quran.com/wordbyword.jsp?chapter=17&verse=59

peace and thank you  for the help

[act of worship]

Salam
7:31
Asad translated here  the word masjid as act of worship (not as a place of worship / sujud).
How does he get it? To my knowledge this is the only time he translated Masjid with an act of worship. why? and possible?
To me it seems illogical, if we look at the continuation of the Aya: ... and eat and drink ... For me, it is logical to be eaten and drunk in a mosque in his original function, but when translated masjid as an act of worship, then  it makes no sense to me. Thanks for your help.
salam

Salam 
I do not know if brother Joseph has written an article on this question, but I do not find it.
in 2.260 we learn the story of Abraham and the proof of the resurrection from the death. Now my question:  is the story about four birds (interpretation from asad) or is it one bird and a quarter of this bird, which was distributed to the mountains?
means it is not in the original Arabic
.. 'ala kulli gabalin minhunna dschuzan? .. "
... on every mountain a  part of them"...?
Thanks for the explanation.Peace

[and you were not dwelling among the people of Madyan, reciting to them Our communications, but We were the senders.]

Salam
another question about the same Sura al Qasas. We see 28.07 - 28.50 only speaks of the story of Moses.

44.   And you were not on the western side when We revealed to Musa the commandment, and you were not among the witnesses;
   
45.   But We raised up generations, then life became prolonged to them; and you were not dwelling among the people of Madyan, reciting to them Our communications, but We were the senders.
   
46.   And you were not on this side of the mountain when We called, but a mercy from your Lord that you may warn a people to whom no warner came before you, that they may be mindful.

in 28. 28 Prophet Muhammad is mentioned 28.44 that he was not at thewestern side (from the TUR?), and then directly that he was not with the people of Madyan, and the messages they would have brought about. In the Tafseer of Asad is declared that this is a note to Shuaib, but is this  really the case?The whole Sura is about Musa. And Musa  has lived in Madyan. Would mean that Muses had preached in Madyan too? Thanks for your help.SAlam

[no other god beside himsel]

salam
when we read 28.38, we see that Pharaoh says that moses should have no other god beside himself . We know that the Egyptians worshiped several gods. Can this be so mean that he meant it  he as the highest God?but  he said,  "a different God than me," does not imply any other God.?thanks for clarification. Peace

Salam all together
27.20

And he reviewed the birds, to see the hoopoe — which would locate water beneath the ground and indicate its location by pecking at it, whereupon the devils would extract it, for Solomon required it for when he prayed; but he could not see him — then he said, 'Why is it that I do not see the hoopoe?, in other words, is there something preventing me from seeing him? Or is he among the absent?, and so I cannot see him because he is absent?' And when he became certain [of the hoopoe's absence],

27.21
He said, 'Assuredly I will chastise him with a severe chastisement, by having [all] his feathers as well as his tail plucked and leaving him out in the sun, where he would not be able to escape from reptiles, or I will slaughter him, by slitting his throat, unless he brings me (read la-ya'tiyannī or la-ya'tinannī) a clear warrant', plain manifest proof for his [having a valid] excuse.

Tafsir al-Jalalayn, trans. Feras Hamza
© 2012 Royal Aal al-Bayt Institute for Islamic Thought, Amman, Jordan (http://www.aalalbayt.org) ® All Rights Reserved

I have trouble  with the interpretation that a prophet of God, who posses the highest wisdom of Allah, he will punish a bird, because he is absent or late,  or slaughter ( dhb kill, to sacrifice ) it. Also, if we looks  the previous verse also we  note that with the ants Prophet Solomon appears in a different light- namely as an admirer of nature and respect it, including the animal world. Are there any other point of view, it is perhaps a wrong translation? Asad said in his comment of a pure, idiomatic, twist, but this convinced me not.
Thanks for your suggestions Peace

[* godly, believing in the Koran]

Salam


http://quransmessage.com/articles/wudu%20before%20touching%20the%20quran%20FM3.htm

after I read the article, I now have two questions. The first is that it existes also another interpretation or  explanation of the aya, which says that  only the pure * godly, believing in the Koran can *
to gather , record,. to capture,to embrace, to seize,to conceive ,to apprehend ,to comprehend,to acquire ,to appreciate
to grasp the Qurans message.

what do you think?

second question is specifically for the following statement?

No doubt, the oral and the written transmissions have both played a crucial role in the Quran's preservation. This is also vouched by the following Quranic verse which separates the reminder in its oral form (dhikr) from the Quran in its book or scriptural form indicating the coexistence of the two transmissions working in tandem.

036:069
"We have not instructed the (Prophet) in poetry, nor is it befitting for him. This is no less than a reminder (Arabic: Dhikr) and (Arabic: wa) a Quran making things clear"

The verse says not al quran, but only Quran * reading * recited*, it is not a link for the written  Kitab .
we see in the Quran many times the term Al Quran for the Quran (our Book), but i think quran is more in general and seems to point here for the revelation and this was oral. Allah says also many times Al Kitab why , if this a mark for the transmission (oral and written) not here also?
thanks for clarification. salam and peace

Salamu Aleikum

ihave a Question on the verse 57.25
According to the article by Joseph are all prophets are messengers,  but not all messengers are prophets, since the latter have received a written scripture, but the former only confirm it.
But how does this verse fit into this picture?

57.25 We have sent our messengers with clear proofs, and we sent down with them the book and the balance, that the people may uphold justice. we sent down the iron Wherein there is great strength, and many benefits for the people. So that God would distinguish those who would support him and his messengers on acknowledgement. God is Powerful, Noble.
Here it seems clear that God sends His Messengers with proofs, Books and Hukma.This would say, that messengers get a script.

Salam

salamu aleikum to all
My daughter is in the school in Qur'an by Surah al Quasas. she has test next week and showed me her preparations. There they learn that  Shu'ayb is the father in law of Moses. I always thought it was Yethro (AT)? I can not remember, so now quickly that Shu'ayb declared somewhere in the Koran as Musa's father in law?From where they get that ?Thanks for clarification. salaam

[The day as an era]

salamu aleikum all! crossroad i see an article from monotheist group about the mention from computer in sura 74. an interested approach.here a part from the article:(for the complete article seehttp://hanif.de/?p=2513

The day as an era
The Quran tells us of various eras which are defined as "days". We are also told that a day with God is 1000 years of our time reckoning.
Sura 74 refers to the beginning of such a new era that will occur in the future and in which the people are reminded once again (... This is a reminder for the people [74:31]) . Our ancestors could not imagine what will happen in our time. They understood that the time mentioned in verses 74:8-9 is the "Day of Resurrection" and therefore they associated this verse with other verses which describe "blowing the horn" (see verses) and claimed that the situation in 74:8-9 is the same, though verse 74:8 contains completely different terms. Let us make a comparison with 50:20 concerning the terms, the shape, the pronunciation and the meaning:
ونفخ فى الصور
Wa-NoFeKha FY AL-SOUR
And blown (is) in the Horn
And here are the terms which we find in verse 74:8, so everyone sees that they have nothing to do with the previous ones:
فإذا نقر فى الناقور
Fa-IZA NoQeRa FY AL NAQOuR
Then, when (it is) clicked in the clicking device

"Click" and "clicking device"
The root نقر [NaQaRa] in verse 74:8 has the following meanings: to tap slightly, to pick, to click, to chop, to hack, to chisel (a stone). According to the dictionary of E.W. Lane the term is also used to describe the sound that occurs when snapping with the fingers. The Arabs mainly used the verb to define the light tapping with the finger on a surface or to describe the sound a bird produces with its beak. Therefore the beak of a bird is called منقار [MeNQAR], which derives from the same root. نقار الخشب [NaQAR AL-Khashab] denotes a woodpecker, تناقر [TaNAQaRa] to pick at each other. At the present time the verb is used on most Arabic websites as "to click" like in the following examples:
أنقر هنا [ONQoR hona] Click here
نقر الكلمة [NaQaRa AL KaLeMaH] He clicked on the word.
نقر أزرار اللوحة [NaQaRa AZRAR ALLaWHaH] He clicked the buttons of the keyboard
The second word ناقور [NAQOuR] has the same root like the verb that we previously mentioned. Based on an Arabic grammar rule any verb can be changed from its root form in order to describe a machine / tool / system by using an alif أ (A) after the first letter of the root and a  و waw (Ou) after the second letter:
فعل [FaÁaLa] to make فاعول [FAÃ"OuL] maker
حسب [HaSaBa] to compute, حاسوب [HASOuB] computer
فرق [faraqa] to divide, فاروق [Farouq] divider (among other things the sword is denoted by this word )
قنن [QaNaNa] to collect قانون [Qanoun] compilation, legislation
معن [MaÁaNa] to help, to aid ماعون [MAÃ"OuN] help system, aid agency

Exactly the same rule is applied for the second word in verse 74:8 that describes a device or system in or on which users can click certain things.

In fact I have never noticed that we mostly make clicks on the computer in order to gather information or process it. We click the keys, click the links that lead us to other pages or click buttons that perform specific functions. For most people the computer is nothing more than a clicking device, the clicks of which open or close worlds for us.

For these reasons we have translated verse (74: in this form:
74:8 Then, when it is clicked in the clicking device

A difficult time for the disbelievers
The proximate verses (74:9-10) declare that this time (computer or information age) is a difficult time for those who deny the Quran. The disbelievers will be confronted with their lies. They will not have an easy time (74:10), nor will they be able to convince anyone concerning their claims because they lack evidence. People from all over the world will unite under the slogan of truth and lead a campaign against them, so that they behave like frightened donkeys (74:50) which are upset (74:51)"

This translation is interesting. however, I have a question to the point: it is also said that the word Saqar means not hellfire but rather the mental state of punishment for those who deny the 19 miracle. However, if this is so, so we'll see at the end of Sura, that those coming into the Saqar:
not pray, do not feed the needy, to commit sins, deny the Day of Judgment. (74.42-47)
here nothing about 19 or numbers or "addad"

Another question:

74.32 What the moon has to do with the wonders of nineteen? The moon seems to me like the other signs of Allah to be here to reflect on the creation of the earth and the sky and is therefore good for swearing. Does this not tend to a universal condition here: the belief in Allah and His Book, etc. and not the miracle 19.

I am very divided because of the 19. One hand, I think that the book of God has a code, but rather take it easy for knowledge and be amazed if anyone finds out again more results. A  miracle more to see how great is Allah. But to justify the change  of the book by removing two verses ,this seems to me to abuse the wonder and to become a  Fitna ...
im confused...
thank you for share your thoughts!

[certain issues I care most:]

Salamu aleikum
because my father in law has just died recently, I was faced with quite a few customs and rituals that have nothing to with the Quran in my view,. For example:
-3 Days mourning, common 'sit' of relatives, neighbors and friends in the house of the deceased,
- Engage a Sheikh to recites Quran for the deceased ('sit' in a specially rented tent, visitors also there)
-The Prohibition, for three days to turn on the TV, except the Koran
(Some say 40 days, according to other Ahadith)
-the Wash of the deceased and the white cloth
-Burying in  the direction of Mecca
-Acquaintance in the streets, so that as much as possible come to pray for the dead , so the 40 people reached (after hadith: a  person is awarded if 40 people accompanied the funeral procession)
-Women are not allowed at the funeral and makruh in the mosque
-Prayer for the Dead

All these things are not in the Koran but only removed from the secondary sources. Really is almost nothing about the death, or what is done afterwards.  is now someone who follows these traditions, guilty of  Shirk ?
the three-day-sit is about no  expression of real grief, it's just social norm / almost hypocrisy of some.

certain issues I care most:

1. is it allowed according to Islam, to cremate a person? or is the verse where Allah says, "Bani Adam comes from the earth and you go to her back" an order to  buried the body  in the earth? If you ask a Sunni it is clear that he will say, the body should be in the grave, as the two angels comes and ask you  the famous questions ..
2.is it permissible to pray for not believers (if you are not sure whether they believed or not) for forgiveness? I mean, Allah says that one should not pray for disbelievers, even if you pray for forgiveness 70 times, Allah would not accept  it. If I  pray, however, this is not a mistake or disobedience?
3. Can we or should we go in cemeteries, visiting the graves of the deceased, as a reminder, also specifically Christian? (Forbidden in Sunni Islam)
4. And I also think the legacy of a "non muslims" is allowed, right? Here, too, can be found in Sunni Islam strictly prohibits accepting such a legacy, it may not even be used as Sadaqa. I find this totally stupid  (sorry) i.e. so: rather let the hungry die , instead  to accept  some money  from Christians or nonbelievers !

Sorre for the long post, but it makes one think ...

salamu aleikum
a question in my mind for some time:

NO HUNTING

005:001 (part)
"... game being unlawful when you are on the pilgrimage (state of ihram) ..."

005:095 (part)
"O ye who believe! Kill no wild game while ye are on the pilgrimage (state of ihram) ..."

005 096
"To hunt and to eat the fish of the sea is made lawful for you, a commission for you and for those who travel, but to hunt on land is forbidden you so long as ye are on the pilgrimage (state of ihram) And. be conscious of your duty to God, to Whom you will be gathered "

Is the "state of ihram" mentioned herea meant (as in traditional translation)  the state of the Hajj pilgrims, i.e. in connection with the region of the Hagg. Or is "ihram" meant as a general term that refers to the four "haram months," and must be adhered to worldwide (already time for the game)
The answer depends on whether we assume that the introduction of the Islamic lunar calendar is a new feature that has been established after the death of the Prophet or not.
The question is superfluous, if we take the tradtitionel view as fact.

I've read a little about the calendars, etc. and found that a study has concluded that the lunar calendar was introduced only after the death of the Prophet.
(However, this study was to verify the hadith to their assertions, i.e. They studied the data of  traditions and counted them back. They found that most of the traditions, if they were back-calculated by the lunar calendar, making seasonal completely false information, if they were, however, calculated back to the pre-Islamic calendar, the seasonal data in most cases precise matched. Now  the only question is, I accept the results of this study now as a Qur'anic approach or not?)
if yes, this means that the times have Hagges of the year did not originally moved and then the four sacred months are every year about the same time, the question would remain whether they require a general ban on hunting for the conservation of wildlife? For me, both scenarios sound logical.
salam 

salamu aleikum
i read a question in an other forum about Vers 2.221 about the menses . One from the answers was:


Quote:  The verse 2- 221 has a word محیض, it is اسم الظرف and the paradigm is مفعل . The meaning of the word can not be menses , The word for menses is حیض then why instead of حیض the word محیض is used.

the word محیض means the place or the time or the target of حیض one of the meaning of حیض is menses while meanings are blood like material coming out of the stem acacia tree (حا ض شجرالشمر), Water flows (حیض ٰالماء). So the meaning of محیض is place or time when blood or water flows . Now keeping in view the context of war the simple meanings are the time or place of war .

Other objection to the usual translation is the answer to the query about محیض the answer is painful. This answer is not correct about menses. Its only painful or disturbing to some ladies. This statement can not be taken categorical for all ladies. Hence It is again to be interpreted as condition of war.

Hence فاعتزلوا النسا ء never means keep yourself away from ladies but here it again means keep yourself away from the oppressed or weak people till they have cleared of the wrong thoughts and ideas. Once they are pure according to Quranic teachings then you may come to them according to the orders of Quran. Because God loves those who return to the right path and purifies.


the first time i see a such interpretation. My understanding of this verse is that the time or the place of the outflowing blood is meant. This is a violation because the uterus is not closed. So if a couple had sexual contact during that time, this could have direct consequences for the woman, as bacteria or viruses etc. penetrate freely into the uterus and could cause infections there. Thus, the commandment is not to approach the women in this time, a logical and rational arrangement of God and has nothing to do with war.
What do you think?