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Dear Br. Joseph,

As-salaam alaikum,

I wish to present my understanding of the place where Prophet Musa (pbuh) was summoned and thereby share what 'thwur' also seems to indicate from the Qur'anic usage as also coupled with 'sinai.' I as a result find some inconsistencies with your analysis [1] of the term 'thwur.' Would you kindly clarify where necessary.

"
From my perspective, the place where Prophet Musa (pbuh) perceived a fire, by the Mount side - 'janibi thwuri' (28:29) was a Holy valley referred to as 'Thuwa' (20:12). See also (79:16). It was from this place that Prophet Musa (pbuh) heard God's voice from the RHS direction at the blessed spot (28:30). Some of the signs were initiated here. As to whether this is the same venue where the covenant in (20:80), the 'miqat' in (7:143) for the Law and another one in 7:155 (2:55) took place is something that could be of a separate discussion. This is with notice that the 1st one is described as 'RHS' of the mount - 'janibi thwuri al-aymana' (20:80), while the 2nd one as 'western' side - 'bijanibi al gharbiyya' (28:44) or 'Mount' side (janibi al-thwur) -28:46.

Thus the Qur'an identifies the position where Prophet Musa (pbuh) was summoned as being at the Holy valley of Thuwa (20:12). On the other hand, the Qur'an interchanges 'thwur' with 'jabal' in the verses captured below to implicate the synonymy of the two terms, especially as understood classically, as for instance as 'a mountain, or any mountain that produces trees' [2].

"And when We raised the mountain (al-jabala) above them (fauqahum) as if it was a dark cloud and they were certain that it would fall upon them, [and Allah said], 'Take what We have given you with determination and remember what is in it that you might fear Allah.' " (Qur'an, Al-A'raf 7:171)

"And when We took your covenant, [O Children of Israel, to abide by the Torah] and We raised over you (fauqakumu) the mount (al-thwura), [saying], 'Take what We have given you with determination and remember what is in it that you might fear Allah.' " (Qur'an, Al-Baqarah 2:63)

See also 2:93 and 4:154

Apart from the one connection of 'thwur' and 'siniin' in 95:2, another one occurs in 23:20 as captured below. A tree sprouting from Mount Sinai could possibly be linked to that olive (zaitun) one mentioned just before it in 95:2 or that one in 28:30 (mubarakat mina shajara). It could also possibly be that referred to in 24:35 (shajarati mubarakati zaituna).

"And [We brought forth] a tree issuing from Mount Sinai (thwuri saina-a) which produces oil and food for those who eat." (Qur'an, Al-Mu'minun 23:20)

" [2]

Regards,
Athman.

REFERENCES:
[1]. MOUNT SINAI - BEHIND THE TRANSLATIONS
http://quransmessage.com/articles/tur%20FM3.htm
[2]. Miqat in 7:142
http://quransmessage.com/forum/index.php?topic=2548.0

[died]

Dear all,

The following is a 3-part inquiry which arises from the foregoing situation parted, of which I was asked to share my opinion. I would like to have your humble views on the same.

A man got married on Friday though had intended to get his wife to his house on Sunday. Out of fate, the man died on Saturday having not fully paid the dowry nor having yet consummated his marriage.

•   Is the wife (of the deceased) eligible for the remaining part of her dowry (Should it be paid to her)? Or, should she return whatever she possesses of the dowry?
•   Should the wife stay an Iddat? Which typical Iddat is that?
•   Is she entitled to inheritance from the deceased's estate?

Thanks.

Regards,
Athman.

[any]

Salamun Aleikum,

Dear Br. Joseph,

I have an inquiry which comes in two-fold in what is actually of concern.

1) In your opinion, how do you reconcile the fact that the Qur'an/ 'Dhikr' has been promised to be preserved (15:9) while the former 'scriptures' were somehow 'allowed' to be partly interfered with, 5:15 (though not wholly corrupted) albeit being expected to be the 'judging scriptures' among the 'People of the Book' for all life? I do understand that the Qur'an has to be the Criterion for discernment as 'muhayminan alaihi.' (5:48)

2) In your opinion, whom do you consider or believe the Qur'an to be expecting be judging by their Book (Taurat/Injeel) in 'our' time? Is it any one claiming to be Jew/Christian, 'only' the actual Jews/christians among citizens of 'Israel' or there's an overlap?


Regards,

Athman.

[generally]

Dear Br. Joseph,

As salaam Aleikum,

With an effort to understand the theme of what is referred to by what is mentioned as "cleansing by rain" of the Muslim army in Quran 8:11, I took notice of various views progressed from the traditional understanding.
The commonest one being the following quoted:

"In the Battle of Uhud the Muslims passed through a similar experience as in 3:154. On both occasions, when prevalent conditions should have produced intense fear and panic among them, God filled their hearts with such peace and tranquility that they were overpowered with drowsiness.

The rain refers to the heavy downpour on the night preceding the Battle of Badr. It helped the Muslims in three ways. First, it provided them with an abundant water supply which they quickly stored in large reservoirs. Second, rain compacted the loose sand in the upper part of the valley where the Muslims had pitched their tents. This helped the Muslims plant their feet firmly and facilitated their movement. Third, where the Quraysh army was stationed in the lower part of the valley, the ground turned marshy.
The defilement caused by Satan which occurs in the verse refers to the fear and panic which initially, afflicted the Muslims." [1]

A view held by most traditionalists in my area concerning the verse is an idea that the verse stands to confirm that generally, rainwater cleanses one of evil spirits/shaitan whispers hence magic spell/witchcraft effect, an idea which can greatly be termed moot from the context of the verses.

Another common interesting proposition is that Allah caused the whole army into a sleep in which they dreamt lustfully about sex to a point of waking up ritually impure as a result hence the rain cleansed them from the Janaba (ritual impurity) status.

Would you please give your opinion on how you understand the verse in question as quoted below.

[Remember] when He overwhelmed you with drowsiness [giving] security from Him and sent down upon you from the sky, rain by which to purify you and remove from you the evil [suggestions] of Satan and to make steadfast your hearts and plant firmly thereby your feet. (Qur'an, Al-Anfaal 8:11)


Regards,

Athman.

Reference:
[1] http://www.islamicstudies.info/tafheem.php?sura=8&verse=11

[eat the flesh of his brother when dead]

Salaamun Aleikum,

This refers to the Qur'anic verse quoted below:

"O you who have believed, avoid much [negative] assumption. Indeed, some assumption is sin. And do not spy or backbite each other. Would one of you like to 'eat the flesh of his brother when dead?' You would detest it. And fear Allah; indeed, Allah is accepting of repentance and Merciful." (Qur'an, Al-Hujurat 49:12)


The traditional understanding on the verse connects the highlighted part with the backbiting of one's brother in faith, mentioned just before it, in a "symbolic" sense. However, much is sometimes advanced beyond the symbolic aspect of it and fanciful stands taken backed by some Secondary Sources material. The "eating of one's brother's flesh" is taken literal.
The following references are made in such a case:

"Ubaid, the freed slave of the Prophet, reported that someone came to the Prophet and showed the Prophet two women who were fasting and said that they were dying of thirst.  The Prophet turned away silently refusing to give permission for them to break their fast.  So, the man begged him again, mentioning that the women were on the verge of death.  The Prophet then said, bring them to me and bring along a bowl.  When they turned to him, he turned to one and told her to vomit in the bowl. She complied, spitting up a mixture of vomit, blood, pus and pieces of flesh which half-filled the bowl.  He then turned to the other and had her do the same.  After the bowl was filled, he said, 'Verily these two have fasted from what Allah has made halal for them and broken their fast from what Allah has made haram.  They spent their fast eating the flesh of others.' Ahmad"

Abdullah ibn Mas'ud reported: We were sitting with the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, when a man stood to leave. Another man spoke badly about him after he left, so the Prophet said, "Pick your teeth." The man said, "O Messenger of Allah, why should I pick my teeth when I have not eaten meat?" The Prophet said, "You have eaten the flesh of your brother."
Source: al-Mu'jam al-Kabīr 9951
Grade: Sahih (authentic) according to Al-Haythami


Traditionally, in the first Hadith, the nullification of the fast is understood to be as a result of "eating the flesh of others" which amounts from backbiting referred to as "what Allah has made haram" in the foregoing Hadith, obviously inferring from 49:12 above with the prohibition "...do not spy or backbite each other..." and as allegedly remarked by the prophet in the second Hadith, supposedly accentuated by the fanciful nature of the contents of the sputum described in the foregoing (first) Hadith.

Now coming to my point of concern, from the context of the verses, could there be a variant advanced understanding of the phrase "eat the flesh of his brother when dead" in 49:12 or is it just an allegorical stylistic device? Otherwise, what could be the symbolic representation of the phrase?

Any Quranic based opinion would be respectfully appreciated Insha Allah.


Regards,

Athman.

Salaamun Aleikum Br. Joseph,

I trust this finds you well. I have gone through the articles below which comprehensively stand to argue for the subject in question. "Interconnection between Makkah, Bacca, Qaabah, and Masjidul Haraam"


http://quransmessage.com/articles/makkah%20bakkah%20FM3.htm
http://quransmessage.com/articles/original%20sanctuary%20FM3.htm
http://quransmessage.com/articles/abraham%20hagar%20FM3.htm

A well-presented exposition of course, in-line with what I have been carefully observing and contending for a long-time.

My point of interest is however on the verse below where Prophet Ibrahim mentions of making some of his offspring dwell in a barren location "by The Sacred House." Could this "Baitika Muharami/Sacred House" referred to Prophet Ibrahim  be synonymous to "Masjidul Haraam/Sacred Mosque" which is most possibly at Makkah?

"O our Lord! I have made some of my offspring to dwell in a valley without cultivation, by Thy Sacred House; in order, O our Lord, that they may establish regular prayer: so fill the hearts of some among men with love towards them, and feed them with fruits: so that they may give thanks" (Qur'an, Al-Ibrahim 14:37)

Regards,
Athman

As salaam Aleikum Br. Joseph,

The following verses both refer to events on the "day" of Judgement. I have a difficulty in understanding the "coming of Allah" and "bearing of Allah's Throne by the Angels (apparently from above (on top of them))" given that I have been understanding the Throne to mean "governing of all matters of whole Universe and everything in HIS dominion."

This is with a view not to perceive the notion of Allah on a "physical throne" nor HIS "physical coming" with a resultantly spatial constraining view.

Could these be treated as amongst the "ambiguous verses" or rather just clear but in an allegorical sense? Otherwise, would you shed some light on this or if you had been understanding this otherwise more precisely different. Thanks.

And the angels are at its edges. And they will bear the Throne of your Lord above them, that Day, eight [of them]. (Qur'an, Al-Haqq 69:17)

And your Lord has come and the angels, rank upon rank (Qur'an, Al-Fajr 89:22)


Regards,
Athman