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Messages - ahmad

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Thank you for your answer.

As Salam Alaykum,

The Quran repeatedly says that those who are "Muhsineen" (righteous ) are given knowledge and wisdom. Does this mean that people of knowledge or religious scholars are better in the sight of God than ordinary muslims ? I mean apparently good scholars not scholars like those  of the people of the book who used to conceal and change the word of God.

And when  he (Prophet Joseph) reached his prime We gave him wisdom and knowledge. Thus We reward the good.

When he (Prophet Moses) reached full age, and was firmly established (in life), We bestowed on him wisdom and knowledge: for thus do We reward those who do good.


Discussions / Re: What constitutes the Torah and the Injeel today ?
« on: August 26, 2017, 12:03:38 AM »
Thank you brother Hamza and Brother Good logic for your replies.

Brother Hamza, I have some comments about your post.

From the verses you shared, I did not see any explicit indication that the children of Israel were obliged to follow scriptures other than the Torah. Maybe they did it out of choice, but I can't find where are they were commanded in the Quran to do so. So could you please elaborate on the issue ?

Also I read brother Joseph's view regarding the Injeel. But he only used implicit arguments. And I found that other verses could be used to suggest the the injeel was indeed a book. Such as:

[Jesus] said, "Indeed, I am the servant of Allah. He has given me the Scripture and made me a prophet.
ِArguably the scripture or (Ketab in Arabic) here is the injeel.

ِAlso from what I understood, If we say that Injeel is only the wisdom imparted to prophet jesus, would that mean that its not the direct word of God. And only Jesus' own words. If that is the case, then I believe it would be a problematic assertion that would not be in harmony with verses like:

He has sent down upon you, [O Muhammad], the Book in truth, confirming what was before it. And He revealed the Torah and the Gospel.

The word Revealed or (Anzal in Arabic) is used for both the Torah and Injeel. It is also used with the Quran. I believe that would imply the same mode of inspiration. Which would arguably be God's direct word (like the Torah and Quran). Not Prophet Jesus' wisdom.

I do not intend to enter a debate, I would just like to know what are your thoughts.

Thanks again for your reply :)

Discussions / What constitutes the Torah and the Injeel today ?
« on: August 22, 2017, 02:42:06 AM »
As Salam Alaykum,

Does the Torah the Quran mentions, refer to only the Five books of Moses and not all the old testament ?
Similarly, Does the Injeel the Quran mentions refer to only the four gospels of the new testament and not all the new testament ?

Thank you


As-Salam Alaykum,

The Quran clearly sanctions the veracity of previous scriptures at the time of the prophet. But Christians today claim that the Bible has been written by 40 different authors over a span of 1500 years. They say they were inspired by the holy spirit. Is that the Quranic view of how the Bible was written ?

I am inclined to believe that the Quran refers to scriptures that are directly written by God (through prophets),  not by inspired men. For instance, why isn't there a Gospel according to Jesus ?

I would appreciate it if anyone could shed some light on this issue.


Dear Rafiqqq,

This question is directly addressed in the Quran.

And I did not create the jinn and mankind except to worship Me.
I do not want from them any provision, nor do I want them to feed Me.
Indeed, it is Allah who is the [continual] Provider, the firm possessor of strength.

God does not need our worship. God is self-sufficient. He has ordained worship on his slaves as a means for their spiritual success. So if God, in creating Mann and Jinn to worship him would imply anything, it is this. That God is merciful [6:12]. You see, God could have created Man and Jinn and tortured them eternally. Instead, God given the chance to his creation to obey and worship him in return for eternal bliss. God is not obliged to do that. But he did it out of his mercy.

God gave a chance for his creation to redeem themselves by worship when he could just have punished them right away. This I believe implies mercy above all else.

Hope this helps, God willing.

General Discussions / Re: About ascribing purity to oneself
« on: July 28, 2017, 10:18:14 PM »
Dear Ilker,

Thank you for your response, I agree with your analysis. Thank for clarifying the matter for me.


General Discussions / About ascribing purity to oneself
« on: July 20, 2017, 03:31:00 AM »
As-salam Alaykum,
Verse [53:32] tell us not to ascribe purity to ourselves yet in verse 12:90 prophet Joseph is talking about his own good deeds. How can we reconcile both verses ?

Thank you in advance.

They said, "Are you indeed Joseph?" He said "I am Joseph, and this is my brother. Allah has certainly favored us. Indeed, he who fears Allah and is patient, then indeed, Allah does not allow to be lost the reward of those who do good."

[53:32] Saheeh International
Those who avoid the major sins and immoralities, only [committing] slight ones. Indeed, your Lord is vast in forgiveness. He was most knowing of you when He produced you from the earth and when you were fetuses in the wombs of your mothers. So do not claim yourselves to be pure; He is most knowing of who fears Him.

Dear Sardar,

Sharia Law is simply God's Law or islamic law as interpreted by different sects of muslims. Sunnis as you know derive their Sharia mainly from the Quran and Hadith. Furthermore, there are different interpretations of Sharia.

Read more :

Also see

I hope this helps,

Salam Miracle114

Were the Earth & heavens joined together or split apart?
(21:30) Split apart ,(41:11) Joined together

If you read the following translation, which I believe is close to the arabic. There is no mention of them being joined together.

[41:11] Saheeh International
Then He directed Himself to the heaven while it was smoke and said to it and to the earth, "Come [into being], willingly or by compulsion." They said, "We have come willingly."

How many angels participated at the Battle of Badr?
(8:9) 1,000 angels. (3:123-124) 3,000 angels.

I found that it has been interpreted as being 1000 angels in the beginning then more angels arrived as in 3:123-124.

How long is Judgement Day?
(32:5) 1,000 Earth years (70:4) 50,000 Earth years

Please see

I hope this helps,

General Discussions / Re: Is God Omnipresent ?
« on: June 23, 2017, 04:10:53 PM »
Dear Ilker,

Thank you for your response  :)

General Discussions / Re: Is God Omnipresent ?
« on: June 22, 2017, 12:48:51 AM »
Thank you Ilker and Wanderer for your replies.(Sorry for the late response) Both of you seem to imply that God has no location, or the question of God's location is invalid. I will think about that. But tell me what do you think of the following:

God is not located in a physical space, as no physical space can contain GOD.
God is not a tangible being, there is nothing like him.
God Is not part of his creation.
Rather God is unlimited and located beyond his creation.

I feel this concept is closer to the Quranic verses. What do you think ?

General Discussions / Re: Is God Omnipresent ?
« on: June 16, 2017, 12:18:55 PM »
Dear Brother Wanderer,

I am aware that God is not a tangible being as per the following verse:

[42:11] (part) ... there is nothing whatever like unto Him, and He is the One that hears and sees (all things).

However, this does not automatically solve the issue. Even if we acknowledge that God is not a tangible being. This does not mean that he can't be omnipresent or present in a certain location.


General Discussions / Is God Omnipresent ?
« on: June 16, 2017, 06:48:57 AM »
As-Salam Alaykum,

I thought this issue would be straight forward, however, it turned out not to be. (For me at least). Anyway my question is: According to the Quran is God omnipresent ? I do not mean in terms of knowledge. There is no disagreement about God being All knowing. What I mean is, God's location. Is God present everywhere ? Or is he present in a specific location ? . From what I've read the traditional position differs. Some say that God cannot be contained in time and space therefore God has no location. Others have said that God exists on top of the seven heavens but he's power encompasses everything. Furthermore the verses below seem to advance two different concepts (at first sight, however deeper analysis is needed):

[67:16] Do ye feel secure that He Who is in heaven will not cause you to be swallowed up by the earth when it shakes (as in an earthquake)?
[67:17] Or do ye feel secure that He Who is in Heaven will not send against you a violent tornado (with showers of stones), so that ye shall know how (terrible) was My warning?

(God is located the heavens)

[30:11] It is Allah Who begins (the process of) creation; then repeats it; then shall ye be brought back to Him.

(If we are going to be brought back to God, does this mean that GOD is located somewhere specific away from us now ?)

[2:115] To Allah belong the east and the West: Whithersoever ye turn, there is the presence of Allah. For Allah is all-Pervading, all-Knowing.

[6:3] And He is Allah in the heavens and on earth. He knoweth what ye hide, and what ye reveal, and He knoweth the (recompense) which ye earn (by your deeds).

[57:4] He it is Who created the heavens and the earth in Six Days, and is moreover firmly established on the Throne (of Authority). He knows what enters within the earth and what comes forth out of it, what comes down from heaven and what mounts up to it. And He is with you wheresoever ye may be. And Allah sees well all that ye do.

(These verses imply that God is present everywhere)

So What are your thoughts ? How can we reconcile the verses ?

Thank you again Brother Joseph for you answer  :)

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