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General Discussions / Does each people judge by what they have been given?
« on: December 16, 2014, 06:20:13 PM »
Asalamu Alykum Dear Br. Joseph Islam
I have read your article "People of the Book" and found that you have pointed out that the Quran tells the Prophet Muhammad(pbuh) that to let the Jews and the Christians to judge by what they are given. (5:42-48)
Just to understand and referring back to the original text in Arabic. in verse 5:44 translations say:
Yusuf Ali
It was We who revealed the law (to Moses): therein was guidance and light.
is the"was" an accurate translation as I know "feeha" means "in it" or "therein" and I can't find "was" in the Arabic.
I noticed the translation you used in the article also says "was"
005.044
It was We who revealed the Torah (to Moses): therein (Arabic: Fi-ha) was guidance and light.
Now what I'm trying to get it is that some people refer to this as a past tense. Or its somewhat sarcasm when verse 5:43 is explained. That they come to the Prophet for judgement because they dont have there books.
I honestly hate to waste your time and over mention something. I read your posts about the Torah and all the subcategories that have to do with it. I myself honestly feel that the verses are clear and agree with your views on them.
Its really a shocking news to some when they hear this. but I was really nervous today by how people react when you tell them you believe this. I feel like I'm the one going against the Quran. so its as if I just need to confirm. Because I feel like I'm denying that the Quran came to all humanity. And not everyone should follow the laws ordained in it.
Some argue that because the Torah was changed then God sent the Injeel. And then the Injeel was changed then thats the reason for the Quran. And God has protected it. And the justifications for this is that the Quran confirms that people tampered and changed the Torah and Bible.
However I incline to your views of the interpretations is because I do believe that just because people don't use what was given to them doesn't mean that they are no longer available by some others. And because of verses (5:42-48)
Does not the God mention somewhere in the Quran that his words are never lost or changed? I tried to search before but maybe I could be mistaken.
The only thing that I question out of good faith is verse 7:157 and 7:158. It seems like it is asking the Jews and Christians to follow Prophet Muhammad with the light(Quran) which was sent to him.
7:157.....(part)and follow the light which is sent down with him,- it is they who will prosper."
7:158 Say: "O men(mankind)! I am sent unto you all, as the Messenger of Allah...
Also isn't studying another book for religious guidance and law rebuked by the Quran, or is that just to the people or nation of the Prophet?
68:36-38
What is [the matter] with you? How do you judge?
Or do you have a scripture in which you learn
That indeed for you is whatever you choose?
The above verse is probably not relating to previous nations with scriptures as they did have scriptures but the rebuttal to that would be they no longer have them?
Also I am inclined to believe that the Quran is reminding the Children of Israel to fulfil the covenant they had. 2:40
I do recall that they were told to hold fast to their Book. 2:63. would that meant forever?
Also 2:44 "Do you order righteousness of the people and forget yourselves while you recite the Scripture? Then will you not reason?"
If the above verse was a present tense in the time of the prophet Muhammad to the Jews then one is inclined to think that amongst the Jews are reciting the Torah and was available in a form God has deemed it allowable for guidance.
I'm just looking for truth Insha'Allah. I don't want it my way. I feel this is a serious topic.
The way I see it, there is 2 ways:
1. the Jews and Christians not follow the Quranic laws but to believe in that the Quran is the word of God and to follow the scriptures that came to them.
2. to believe that the Quranic law is for all.
In the event that (1) is wrong, then the consequence of believing in this way seems worse than than (2)
And thats why I would like to be certain and its not just a small matter to me. Because if the case of number (1) is true and absolute, we also have no say in the matter and this is what God has ordained. And this is what we should be preaching as well.
I have taken up much of your time lately with my questions in the past couple days. And I honestly only intend for the best and the truth and not to exhaust you but to help you(something which I might not be able to do but Insha'Allah). Only reply if you find it a topic that will benefit others and not only myself as there is other important things going on.
Peace be upon you
I have read your article "People of the Book" and found that you have pointed out that the Quran tells the Prophet Muhammad(pbuh) that to let the Jews and the Christians to judge by what they are given. (5:42-48)
Just to understand and referring back to the original text in Arabic. in verse 5:44 translations say:
Yusuf Ali
It was We who revealed the law (to Moses): therein was guidance and light.
is the"was" an accurate translation as I know "feeha" means "in it" or "therein" and I can't find "was" in the Arabic.
I noticed the translation you used in the article also says "was"
005.044
It was We who revealed the Torah (to Moses): therein (Arabic: Fi-ha) was guidance and light.
Now what I'm trying to get it is that some people refer to this as a past tense. Or its somewhat sarcasm when verse 5:43 is explained. That they come to the Prophet for judgement because they dont have there books.
I honestly hate to waste your time and over mention something. I read your posts about the Torah and all the subcategories that have to do with it. I myself honestly feel that the verses are clear and agree with your views on them.
Its really a shocking news to some when they hear this. but I was really nervous today by how people react when you tell them you believe this. I feel like I'm the one going against the Quran. so its as if I just need to confirm. Because I feel like I'm denying that the Quran came to all humanity. And not everyone should follow the laws ordained in it.
Some argue that because the Torah was changed then God sent the Injeel. And then the Injeel was changed then thats the reason for the Quran. And God has protected it. And the justifications for this is that the Quran confirms that people tampered and changed the Torah and Bible.
However I incline to your views of the interpretations is because I do believe that just because people don't use what was given to them doesn't mean that they are no longer available by some others. And because of verses (5:42-48)
Does not the God mention somewhere in the Quran that his words are never lost or changed? I tried to search before but maybe I could be mistaken.
The only thing that I question out of good faith is verse 7:157 and 7:158. It seems like it is asking the Jews and Christians to follow Prophet Muhammad with the light(Quran) which was sent to him.
7:157.....(part)and follow the light which is sent down with him,- it is they who will prosper."
7:158 Say: "O men(mankind)! I am sent unto you all, as the Messenger of Allah...
Also isn't studying another book for religious guidance and law rebuked by the Quran, or is that just to the people or nation of the Prophet?
68:36-38
What is [the matter] with you? How do you judge?
Or do you have a scripture in which you learn
That indeed for you is whatever you choose?
The above verse is probably not relating to previous nations with scriptures as they did have scriptures but the rebuttal to that would be they no longer have them?
Also I am inclined to believe that the Quran is reminding the Children of Israel to fulfil the covenant they had. 2:40
I do recall that they were told to hold fast to their Book. 2:63. would that meant forever?
Also 2:44 "Do you order righteousness of the people and forget yourselves while you recite the Scripture? Then will you not reason?"
If the above verse was a present tense in the time of the prophet Muhammad to the Jews then one is inclined to think that amongst the Jews are reciting the Torah and was available in a form God has deemed it allowable for guidance.
I'm just looking for truth Insha'Allah. I don't want it my way. I feel this is a serious topic.
The way I see it, there is 2 ways:
1. the Jews and Christians not follow the Quranic laws but to believe in that the Quran is the word of God and to follow the scriptures that came to them.
2. to believe that the Quranic law is for all.
In the event that (1) is wrong, then the consequence of believing in this way seems worse than than (2)
And thats why I would like to be certain and its not just a small matter to me. Because if the case of number (1) is true and absolute, we also have no say in the matter and this is what God has ordained. And this is what we should be preaching as well.
I have taken up much of your time lately with my questions in the past couple days. And I honestly only intend for the best and the truth and not to exhaust you but to help you(something which I might not be able to do but Insha'Allah). Only reply if you find it a topic that will benefit others and not only myself as there is other important things going on.
Peace be upon you