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https://ponderingislam.com/2016/06/30/interlinguistic-pun-in-the-quran/

The above was posted on the islamawakened facebook page. I'm just reposting here for general interest.

I have read Joseph Islam's article on 'Slaughter' here:

http://quransmessage.com/articles/slaughtering%20of%20animals%20-%20the%20correct%20method%20of%20sacrifice%20FM3.htm

I note that the method by which an animal is put to death is specified.

This is mostly done in the context of food, but I presume that it would generally be applicable to killing an animal for any purpose.

If such is the case then unfortunately much of the leather products in my household would likely have been extracted from animals killed in an unlawful manner.

In Quran 10:92 it is revealed that Fir'oun will be preserved in body as a sign to those after him.

http://islamawakened.com/quran/10/92/

In popular culture Pharaoh seems to be associated with Ramesses II, whose mummified remains are well preserved, seemingly consistent with what the Quran describes.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ramesses_II

However I get the feeling that Ramesses II may not have been Fir'oun.

Ramesses II is described to have died at aged 90, past his physical prime and arthritic. Whereas Fir'oun appeared to be active, physically pursuing Moses until his demise (though I suppose he could have been carried or driven by horses). It just seems to me that Fir'oun was younger.

Is there anything concrete to suggest that Ramesses II was indeed the Fir'oun described in the Quran?

[be]

Thank you for the new article.

I don't mean to be an insufferable pedantic but a minor correction here:

(2) AS A MEANS OF TEST FOR OTHERS

In order to create a canvas of human life where human souls can be trialled, oppression, wretchedness, illness, and calamities will be become the fabric of human existence.

My wife and I are expecting our first baby soon and we are pondering on  surnames.

I understand that the Quran recommends strongly that a child be identified through use of his or her father's name.

However I would like to know if the use of a family name is allowable, i.e. a surname identifying the family of father. In our case the intent is to use and establish my father's name as a family name.

I see some advantages in doing this and also some cons. The cons mainly being that each new generation of kids will not carry a father's name but only a name identifying family.

Would this be in violation of Quranic principles? I would greatly appreciate any opinions on this matter.

I've stumbled on the Shabbir Ahmed translation as one that's perhaps near to JI's views.

His translation is view-able on the islamawakened.com website.

Also it is available in book form here:

http://www.amazon.com/gp/product/0974787981

Please do not take my word for this and exercise caution at all times.

Greetings to all,

I have the following questions and comments regarding religion.

1. According to the Quran there will not be any injustice (atom's weight/hair's breadth) on any soul:

Does this mean that paradise is given purely on the basis of those who have done good and forbidden evil by their own souls regardless of religion (i.e. following  God's teaching it of what is good for it and bad for it)?

2. The purpose of the religions of the book are to make clear the nature and reality of life and the universe, a means by which a soul may seek relief and guidance in navigating life, and a prescription for individual and social best practice. Would this be near to the mark?

3. Not following the prescribed acts of worship, e.g - prayer, fasting, performing Hajj, is not in itself a sin and presumably not injustice, but rather implies the absence of seeking God's relief and guidance. On this basis is it that not following prescribed acts of worship does not automatically preclude paradise?

4. Could it be that the prescribed praying five times in a day, Hajj being prescribed as once in a lifetime etc., be regarded as upper limits to acts of worship in seeking God's relief and guidance? That is, the absence of these limits causing a true believer to spend much more time in worship than what is necessary?

[note]

"All Biblical instances of the term are found as 'Parakletos' (comforter) and not Periklytos. The word 'Periklytos' does note appear anywhere in the Greek New Testament or the Old Testament in Greek (Septuagint)."

Just pointing out a minor typing error.

Greetings to all.
I have the following questions on the Jummah prayer.

1. It is common practice that the Jummah prayer replaces the Noon day prayer. Is this supported by the Quran? If no then would the Jummah prayer constitute a sixth prayer on the day of Jummah.

2. Is there any reason why the Jummah prayer is prayed at the time of the Noon day prayer? Would it be possible to pray the Jummah prayer at other times of the day?

In 3:49 and in numerous other places the Quran refers to man being created out of clay.

My questions as follows.

1. Does the Arabic word used for "clay" literally interpret to that? Or can it also interpret to "something like clay"?

2. If a literal interpretation is what is intended, is the claim of humans being created from "clay" consistent with science? Clay, as I understand it, is primarily composed of Silicon, whilst humans are primarily Carbon based.

Dear Joseph Islam,

I refer to the article on the prophet's miracles:

http://quransmessage.com/articles/prophet%27s%20miracles%20FM3.htm

According to the Quran 3:123 to 128, the narrative seems to describe angels sent to assist the Apostle's force.

The Quran seems to suggest in 3:124, that the prophet had said: "Is it not enough For you that God should help you With three thousand angels (Specially) sent down?", i.e. pointing to a seemingly miraculous event.

Can you please explain if the angels of Badr described here constitute a miraculous event, and if so, how is this consistent with the argument that the prophet received no signs aside from the Quran itself?

Dear Joseph Islam,

I refer to the following article, specifically the section on the consumption of Birds.

http://quransmessage.com/articles/food%20restrictions%20FM3.htm

I understand that there are no restrictions in the Quran on the eating of birds, and in fact the Quran also mentions fowl as a food in paradise.

You have also stated that the rule on general animal consumption, i.e. carnivorous and omnivorous animals may not be consumed, may be applied to birds.

However articles on the internet discussing the diet of birds seem to suggest that fowl such as chicken are in fact omnivorous. See random google link below:

http://www.westonaprice.org/farm-a-ranch/chickens-are-omnivores-its-no-dilemma

On this basis do you feel that fowl may not be eaten during our life on earth?

Or, based on the Quranic assertion that fowl is consumed in paradise, do you feel that omnivorous birds are allowable for consumption?

Your comments are greatly appreciated.

I refer to the following verse on Wudhu:

http://www.islamawakened.com/quran/5/6/default.htm

Yusuf Ali: "O ye who believe! when ye prepare for prayer, wash your faces, and your hands (and arms) to the elbows; Rub your heads (with water); and (wash) your feet to the ankles. If ye are in a state of ceremonial impurity, bathe your whole body. But if ye are ill, or on a journey, or one of you cometh from offices of nature, or ye have been in contact with women, and ye find no water, then take for yourselves clean sand or earth, and rub therewith your faces and hands, God doth not wish to place you in a difficulty, but to make you clean, and to complete his favour to you, that ye may be grateful."

Can "offices of nature" also include an episode of flatulence? In the Muslim community I come from an episode of flatulence, however small, renders Wudhu void, and therefore Wudhu must be performed again in order to be fit for prayer. In my personal opinion flatulence may or may not result in uncleanliness, and it should be left to individual judgment if purification is necessary.

Does "contact with women" imply only sexual contact or any form of physical contact? In the Muslim community I come from even an accidental touch with a member of the opposite sex will render Wudhu void.

Your opinions are greatly appreciated.

Chapter 53 seems rather mystical and intruiging. Is there any article on this website about it?

54:1: "The Hour (of Judgment) is nigh, and the moon is cleft asunder."

I am trying to find verses in the Quran that are similar to the above. That is, a future event related as though it is happening now or has happened in the past.

I am sure that Joseph Islam related another example either in one of his articles or in this forum, but I can't seem to find that reference again.

Can anyone point me out any similar other reference in the Quran?

[endued with justice]

I refer to the following verse:

4:6 (Yusuf Ali): "Make trial of orphans until they reach the age of marriage; if then ye find sound judgment in them, release their property to them; but consume it not wastefully, nor in haste against their growing up. If the guardian is well-off, Let him claim no remuneration, but if he is poor, let him have for himself what is just and reasonable. When ye release their property to them, take witnesses in their presence: But all-sufficient is God in taking account."

I infer from this verse the following:
1. The age of marriage is linked to sound judgment
2. Sound judgment is judgment sufficient to manage wealth and property
3. Witnesses are necessary to verify that property has been transferred

So my question is as follows:

Would it also be within the scope of witnesses to verify also that any contract is not unreasonable and that justice is being served?

For example, in the context of the transfer of property from guardian to orphan (or even of marriage), what if witnesses observe that the recipient or person to be married is not of sound judgment?

I notice that in verse 65:2 that witnesses are to endured with justice (bolded below), and from this I infer that witnesses must witness justice as well, and take some responsibility. Why else would God have included this information? Would this be a correct interpretation?

65:2: "Thus when they fulfil their term appointed, either take them back on equitable terms or part with them on equitable terms; and take for witness two persons from among you, endued with justice, and establish the evidence (as) before God. Such i s the admonition given to him who believes in God and the Last Day. And for those who fear God, He (ever) prepares a way out,"

Any comments are appreciated.

I have come across this article on how prayer must be ended according to the Quran.

http://www.quran-islam.org/islam/main_topics/ending_of_the_salat_%28P1167%29.html

Translations of the Arabic seem alright to me. Comments are welcome!

Greetings to all..

I am personally very greatly interested in economics, government policy and laws.

I thought I might share with all of you this interesting essay on the topic. The material is unrelated to the Quran and Islam. However I find it enlightening. At the very least I think it gives perspective and understanding.

http://bastiat.org/en/the_law.html

Greetings to all.

With regards to the reference to a "day of congregation" in 62:9 - Surah Jum'mah.

I wonder if anyone can explain to me why this day refers to "Friday" as is common practice today. Is there any other reference within the Quran on the "day of congregation"?

Also Surah Jum'mah does not refer to a time of prayer. Does this mean that the congregational prayer may be held as a replacement to any of the five prayers, instead of just the noonday prayer?

Apologies if this question has been asked before. Thanks very much in advance for your opinions.

Salaams to all,

I know a few short Surahs by memory. Like most Muslims I suppose, I've been brought up to recite Surahs, as part prayer, as a matter of ritual rather than with full understanding.

I know from 04:43 that repeating the Arabic words without understanding the meaning is not recommended. My understanding of Arabic is poor.

In order to solve the problem I have attempted to gain an understanding of the Arabic in Surahs I know in order that I may pray in Arabic whilst remembering the meaning simultaneously.

I prefer reciting the Quran in Arabic during prayer as it feels more pleasant. The memorized words just flow, especially when I don't concentrate too much, and it is possible for me to lose myself in the rhythm. I've always felt that the easy remembrance of the Quran in Arabic is evidence of it's divine origin. The recitation of the Quran in Arabic for me evokes feelings of harmony, solace, divinity and something extraordinary.

Unfortunately though the English meanings of many surahs can be complex, and it is difficult to recall a meaning exactly whilst praying in Arabic. I therefore end up just remembering the gist of a surah and less so the meanings of the individual Arabic words.

So my question is can the remembrance of the gist of a Surah, and the feelings evoked by reciting the Quran in Arabic, contribute to prayer? The Quran in Arabic seems to me to be so conveniently easy to repeat and rehearse without understanding, therefore I wonder if this form of prayer could have also been intended by God.