Another person, or audience, or person trying to come up with it, would decide.
Why is it logically flawed?
Why is it logically flawed?
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Show posts MenuQuoteCan women initiate divorce according to Quran?
QuoteTo my knowledge, the husband is the one who initiates divorce/talaq, however the wife can release herself from the marriage but it is not called talaq explicitly in Quran. In practice the end result is the same. It could be considered nomenclature for the time.
QuoteIf a woman wanted divorce she can ask her husband to divorce her, but if the husband does not divorce her, she can inform the authority herself and request a release from marriage. Whilst different words are used the procedure is actually the same for both men/women, as the husband would also have to notify the authority if he wished to divorce.
Quote from: F.M.S.Abdal on September 06, 2023, 11:39:04 AM
Salamun alaykum,
https://youtube.com/shorts/iVYDLDjlMRs?si=PSC5nsA3KK1gAMiS
So, Rumzi states it can be better clarified and gives a very logical example. So from the Quranic perspective, why does the Qur'an need any further explanation or complementary materials that gives more detailed instructions or detailed history?
Quote from: Wakas on June 13, 2023, 11:44:26 PM
How does that in any way highlight errors with or disprove The Quran?
I'm sorry but your credibility is fading.
Quote1) for Khula or ransoming out of the marriage does wife need the husbands agreement? If she does then what happens when the husband forces her to stay when she doesn't want to?