Wa alaikum assalam brother Ismail,
Thank you for your comments.
Please see my responses to your comments in
blue italics.But in Arabic the same root is made use of to indicate any kind of error. Al Quran is witness to this:
For example, in 2:282, the root is used for an (unintentional?) error by a female witness.
In 20:52, it is used to deny any error on the part of God in the matter of knowledge of history. With respect dear brother, if we are to remain consistent with the use of the active participle
'dall' in verse 93:7 then the comparison with verse 1:7 is not wholly inappropriate. The same participle is used in verses: 2:198, 3:90, 5:60, 6:77, 7:179, 15:56, 17:72, 23:106, 25:34, 25:42, 25:44, 26:20, 26:86, 28:50, 37:69, 41:52, 46:5, 56:51, 56:92; 68:26 and 83:32. In
all these verses, the nuance is similar.
With respect and in my humble view, your comparison with the imperfect verb
'yadillu' in 2:282 or 20:52 is not a wholly consistent comparison other than the superficial comparison of roots.
Please remember that the word
'dall' has been hotly debated in classic literature for this very reason. There were some that wanted to pacify its meaning in verse 93:7 simply because it applied to the prophet. As scholar Walid Saleh correctly notes:
- "Take verse 93:7 "did He not find you [Muhammad] erring (dallan), and guide you?" It should come as no surprise that Muslim commentators offer various interpretations in order not to give us the lexical meaning of the word d-l-l. Indeed, by al-Zamakhshari's time, a clearly articulated statement against a literal understanding of the verse had become central to how this word was interpreted. One cannot understand the word here, al-Zamakhshari indignantly states, to mean Muhammad was a heathen. No modern scholar would consider it worth his time even to entertain the idea that d-l-l is a foreign word. In this instance medieval commentators were not so much elucidating as obfuscating. [1] "
(ii) Therefore the enormous gravity of 5:5 is not present in 42:52.The same verbal noun 'imaan' that is used in 5:5 is also used in 42:52. Although I appreciate the context is different, this does not deter from the meaning of the word 'imaan'.
The words ma kuntha thadree ma al kithabu wa la al eemanu in 42:52 only means: You had not yet arrived at in depth knowledge of either the Book or the Faith, - your heroic efforts notwithstanding. With respect, I find your interpretation and underlying insinuation somewhat disagreeable. The explicit text of the Quran states
'la imaanu'. (nor the faith). There is
no mention of the
'degree / extent' of knowledge or faith mentioned in the Holy text. Your comment is once again 'interpolative’ especially the latter sentiment which I find has no explicit warrant from the Quran. With respect, I find that you have inadvertently 'read' this 'interpolation' into the Quran to support your extant theological perspective.
(iii) The root gain – fa – laam (GFL) is not always about criminal negligence or senseless or foolish heedlessness. This is not what was implied and with utmost respect, I find your citation both a red herring and a straw man argument.
My citation of 12:3 was in the following context:
"Would a false prophet intent on writing a false scripture expose their futility of yore in such a manner so publicly so as to have it preserved in posterity?" This question was asked in the backdrop of many claims and within classical literature that surrounds the prophet in hagiography. Furthermore, certain modern day views of the adherents believe the prophet to be
'hazar nazar' (ever witnessing and present), where he was granted all knowledge
et al.
This was not necessarily an assertion over the aggressiveness of the word 'ghafil' in the context used.
(iv) As for the Prophet forbidding upon himself what Allah had made lawful for him, seeking to please his wives (66:1), this forbidding cannot be construed as a religious prohibition.
Because, religious prohibition amounts to telling lies regarding God, that He has prohibited such and such a thing while He never did so. And there cannot be a sin beyond this. I trust the verse is clear for anyone to read. There was something lawful which the prophet made unlawful for a particular reason. The context is not elaborated to any substantial degree but the point was so important, that it was deemed appropriate for it to be included into the glorious, majestic reading of the Quran
for posterity. There is also evidence that such citations in the Quran against the Prophet serve as admonishments when explicitly stated. Please see verse 80:11.
Let us speak respectfully of those regarding whom God has spoken with respect in 16:32, and several other places in al Quran.With respect, I find this comment superfluous and I trust that you have not implied that any of my comments intended any disrespect whatsoever. Therefore, I take your comment as a general one and not in the backdrop of any material shared in this thread.
The comments that I once wrote were indicative of the thoughts that passed my mind as an ardent critic and academic that came to the conclusion
that God had indeed spoken via the Quran. It was the honesty and candidness in which the scripture spoke which convinced me of its truth, not the
'softened',
'pacified' interpretations of many of its adherents. It was in this context that the post was shared.
With respect and warm regards,
Joseph.
REFERENCE:[1] SALEH, W. The Etymological Fallacy and Quranic Studies: Muhammad, Paradise, and Late Antiquity, University of Toronto, Page 3