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The use of "Abba" is against the law of Musa(ten commandments) and Jesus would never ever deal against the previous law.If you say father than logically there must be a Mother and a child.
Kind regards
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In regards to your point above there are 2 responses:
- I quote Br Joseph in his link on this topic I find no proof that this was a later 'insertion' into the NT text as to my knowledge, the old manuscripts retain the word 'Abba' followed by a Greek transliteration (Pater - Father) which informs the readership what it means.
- And secondly, what is a foundational qualifier to this topic that I stated at the beginning: Re the above, "Hebrew figures of speech make great use of sonship terminology, e.g., sons of Babylon, sons of the kingdom, sons of the evil one, sons of thunder, sons of peace, sons of the light, sons of darkness, sons of heaven, and sons of the resurrection. Obviously, such titles neither imply biological offspring, nor suggest that a woman could literally be impregnated by thunder or light." The problem occurs when the Nazarenes / Nashara use that phrase in Arabia. "Obviously, literal translation of ben elohim (son of God) was even more vulnerable to evolve into heresy in Arabia not only because of the more restrictive use of terms like ibn and walad, but also because of how easily such titles were confused by pagan idolaters to refer to that which the Qur’a¯n condemns unequivocally."
I understand this is a very foreign concept in referring to God, however it is simply a linguistic issue where "father" doesn't mean "father" when transliterated, the same as islam doesn't mean Islam when transliterated. I belief Br. Joseph has stated his position, as well as I. Hopefully it is clear now.
Wasalam
Zack