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Offline Reader Questions

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Bearing Other People's Burdens on the Day of Judgement
« on: August 23, 2014, 02:42:14 AM »
Salam Alaykum,

I have been reading a number of your articles and have found them very intuitive, may Allah continue to increase you in knowledge.

My question is concerning the issue of burden on the day of resurrection,

I have read in many verses implying no one would carry or bear another man's burden ex. Q6.164 but i have also read in Q16.25 that some people will carry burdens also from those whom they have misguided.

Is this a contradiction, exemption or an elaboration on the other verses?

Thanks in advance for your response.

Ma Salam

Offline Joseph Islam

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Re: Bearing Other People's Burdens on the Day of Judgement
« Reply #1 on: August 23, 2014, 03:03:48 AM »
Wa alaikum assalam

Thank you for your kind words, Alhumdolillah.

The verses you kindly share are neither contradictory nor mutually exclusive, but rather, dovetail in essence into a wider message.

For example, as I mentioned in another post:

“Note that one cannot take away another person's responsibility and each of us are ultimately responsible for our own burdens (6:164). However, it is clear in 16:25 that misleading others is an indictment on our own responsibility and for that one inevitably accrues some share of the crimes of those that they misled.

For example, a crazy warmonger imam cannot just simply sit back and claim no responsibility for the impressionable minds he may have led astray to cause atrocities with his vile despicable teachings. He will inevitably bear the burden a breach of that responsibility and that crime. At the same time however, the impressionable mind will ALSO bear the burden of his / her own responsibility and their own share of the crime.”
[1]

This increase in punishment (culpability based on breach of responsibility) can also be seen hinted at in other verses such as 7:38 and even when it concerned the prophet (17:74-75).

However, it is also useful to note that there is arguably a difference between inadvertently misguiding one in ignorance (when the intention was merely to part with an opinion) and misguiding one (intentionally leading others with conviction) especially after the truth of the error of one’s ways has been made manifest to them.

I hope that clarifies, God willing
Joseph


REFERENCE:

[1] Are Imam's Infallible?
http://quransmessage.com/forum/index.php?topic=24.msg65#msg65
'During times of universal deceit, telling the truth becomes a revolutionary act' 
George Orwell