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Offline ilker

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Re: Miqat in 7:142
« Reply #15 on: June 03, 2018, 11:09:28 AM »
Salamun alaykum all,

Something's caught my attention just now about the usage of "nights" in the Quran. Our book is coherent, internally consistent, so we can find the usage of specific terms in other places in the Quran thus we can grasp the idea behind them.

Take a look at 19:10-11:

"[Zechariah] said, "My Lord, make for me a sign." He said, "Your sign is that you will not speak to the people for three nights, [being] sound."

"So he came out to his people from the prayer chamber and signaled to them to exalt [ Allah ] in the morning and afternoon."

To me, it seems that the usage of "nights" here could actually mean "day and night". If this is a sign for Prophet Zachariah (pbuh)... I mean I find it somewhat illogical that he could speak during daytime when the sun is up, and lost his ability to talk when it was night. Because that's the result if you take "nights" as "only nights not including daytime" here in this passage.

Logically, i think of whole 3 days here. If "ayyam" means "periods" in general (like the ayat about the creation of heavens and the earth), it could be understandable that Allah (swt) chose the word "nights" for further specification and elaboration, meaning "for 3 consecutive nights" that include daytime.

Just a thought.

Allah (swt) knows best.

Take care inshaAllah.

Offline Duster

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Re: Miqat in 7:142
« Reply #16 on: June 03, 2018, 03:19:50 PM »
Shalom / peace Ilker .... when you say the Quran is coherent and I believe it is precise too, then why can't night just be night? i.e.  if the Quran says means night!

You say it would be illogical that he could speak during the day.... why? If the Quran says he lost his speech in the night, then that could be considered a bigger sign for him as he lost his voice only a certain part of every day, not just a simple ailment which he could put down to a bad throat or something. If we take all the verses where the Quran has used night and start saying it means day too, then a lot of verses will become illogical......

Also as brother Joseph referenced as well.  In verse 69-7 it says  ..."Which Allah imposed upon them for seven nights and eight days............'. If the night include the days then why did the Qur'an clarify and include mention of the days here?

I think we need to be careful here ...

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Re: Miqat in 7:142
« Reply #17 on: June 04, 2018, 04:07:04 AM »

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