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Offline Reader Questions

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Peace brother Joseph,

I would like to get a better understanding of the verse 23:6 .

23:6 (Picktall) Save from their wives or the (slaves) that their right hands possess, for then they are not blameworthy,
23:6 (Y. Ali) Except with those joined to them in the marriage bond, or (the captives) whom their right hands possess,- for (in their case) they are free from blame, 
23:6 (Asad) [not giving way to their desires] with any but their spouses - that is, those whom they rightfully possess [through wedlock]: [3] for then, behold, they are free of all blame,

This is in the context of permissible category of sex also defines what constitutes adultery(zina) according to Quran


•  23:5 (Asad) and who are mindful of their chastity,
•  23:5 (Y. Ali) Who abstain from sex, 
•  23:5 (Picktall) And who guard their modesty

Now as I know from your following article  you mentioned the different meaning of the idiom "those that your right hands possess"  also sex is prohibited without marriage.

http://quransmessage.com/articles/sex%20with%20slave%20girls%20FM3.htm

So what should be the proper meaning of this idiom in the context of 23:6 which gives the permission of sex with mates (azwajihim )  OR "those that your right hands possess". It does not mention explicitly  that it required to marry these category of "those that your right hands possess"   .

This verse is often quoted by people wrongly translating the idiom "those that your right hands possess" as slaves  also to point out that Quran  is actually permitting to have sex with slave girls without marriage.

I have found some explanation of this verse regarding what should be the proper meaning of "those that your right hands possess"   in this context. For example as follows it says this category was concubines before revelation of Quran so it was not required to marry them after revelation of Quran. How appropriate is this explanation ?  Also does this applies to modern day?

Edip-Layth - End Note 1 (23:6)
It refers to those who were concubines before the revelation that prohibited slavery and gave them freedom. Though the Quran prohibited slavery for muslims, at that time, slavery and wars were the reality of the polytheistic world. Prohibited relationships that started before the revelation of the Quran, were not asked to be voided, since that would create bigger psychological, economic and social problems. In other words, the laws of the Quran in the sphere of marriage relationships was not applied retroactively (4:22-23). Also, see 4:3,25; 90:1-20.

Offline Joseph Islam

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Salamun Alaikum,

You say:

"So what should be the proper meaning of this idiom in the context of 23:6 which gives the permission of sex with mates(azwajihim )  OR "those that your right hands possess"It does not mention explicitly that it required to marry these category of "those that your right hands possess" 

[Bold emphasis mine]

With respect, any ‘perceived’ difficulty is  removed if the following section of the article is considered:

[Start of quote]

WHY DOES THE QURAN DISTINGUISH BETWEEN 'MARRIED WOMEN' AND 'RIGHT HANDS POSSESS' AND CLASSIFY THEM AS SEPARATE CATEGORIES?

"Women who are from the category of ‘right hands possess’ are not ‘free’ women in the same sense. They are either slaves or captures. When one takes them in marriage, all the rules of responsibility of wedlock on part of the male applies to the one he marries. However, this spouse still has reduced answerability such as her punishment in the case of ‘Fahisha’ (lewdness).

There remains a crucial difference between a marriage based on complete freedom of choice exacted by a 'free believer' without circumstantial influence and one based on compromises, incentives such as freedom, status and financial stability gained through a compromise marriage.  These differences in choices based on free and non-free parties are clearly recognized. Hence the noted difference in answerability as well"

[End of quote]


Therefore, the Quran classifies two separate categories. This does not mean they do not have to be married. All the verse 23:6 says is 'Except from their spouses or what their right hands possess'. It makes no mention of 'Nikaah'. It just addresses two separate categories and assumes ‘Nikaah’ (Lawful wedlock). The fact that both categories have to be married to make sex lawful is clear from verse 4:25.

With respect, I see no difficulty here if one clearly acknowledges why the Quran addresses the two categories separately. If this is accepted, then any further attempts to ‘redefine’ ‘right hands possess' become mute.

I hope that helps, God willing.
Joseph.
'During times of universal deceit, telling the truth becomes a revolutionary act' 
George Orwell