Dear All,
Salamun Alaikum
The Quran's treatment of Biblical narratives should not be appreciated in silo. It is important to remember that the People of the Book had been familiar with these narratives for centuries. If the Quran intended to depart from the traditional understanding of the Jews and Christians,
it would have clearly stated it. However, we find in most instances, the Quran
'confirming' (musaddiqan) the Biblical narratives (3:3). The Quran also recognises what the People of the Book were reading
at the time of the Prophet's ministry [1] so therefore, was clearly in dialogue with their understanding at the time.
For us to accept an allegorical meaning, we have to prove the Quran clearly challenged the same stories that were known to the Jewish and Christian audience.
So for example, if Prophet Moses's rod became a snake (Hebrew -
naw-khawsh: snake, serpent - Exodus 4:3) and this is how it was always understood by the People of the Book for generations,
why did the Quran use a similar expression to describe the same narrative (Arabic:
jannun - serpent, snake (27:10)
thu'banun: serpent)?
This is clearly a
'confirmation'. Why did the Quran not challenge this Biblical understanding? Why did it confirm it in Arabic? This would be the perfect place for the Quran to challenge the Biblical understanding of portents.
To impose new allegorical meanings
which were never understood by its primary Jewish and Christian audience for me is
intellectually unacceptable. Therefore, I will add a fourth, fifth and sixth question to my list of academic contentions that challenge those that deny the Quran's clear testimony of portents.
- Given God's infinite capacity, please provide clear Quranic proof that He cannot temporarily suspend / alter / interfere with the laws He himself has created as and when 'He so wills' to manifest a particular truth
- What did God stop / withhold / arrest / prevent / refrain / suspend (mana) in 17:59 going forward that He had sent to previous communities?
- How could God stop something (17:59) He did before, if He did not alter His ways?
- Why does the Quran 'confirm' (musaddiqan) the traditional understanding of the Jewish and Christian audience at the time of the Prophet's ministry with regards portents and not challenge it?
- Why does the Quran use similar terms in the Arabic language to support the existing understanding of the Jews and Christians regarding portents?
- Why would one not accept the Quran's clear testimony, even though the Quran says it is not a book of riddles and has no crookedness?
"...qur'anan arabiyyan ghayra dhi iwajin ..." (A Quran in Arabic without any crookedness...)
Finally, I ask another humble question. Do some simply not accept the Quran's testimony as it doesn't
fit in with their worldview? Do they look for allegorical meanings because they do not want to accept the Quran at its word?
Respectfully, we cannot skirt fundamental questions in the name of being students. We all have an individual responsibility as believers to address fundamental questions rather than spending time focusing on peripheral matters.
Dear Mubashir - Even if a prophet came to our midst - those that don't want to accept certain passages of the Quran be they miracles or otherwise,
simply won't. They would have arguably done exactly the same at the time of the Prophet as well.
Why wouldn't they? The Prophet would have narrated exactly the same as what we read today. No one from antiquity has ever understood Biblical portents narrated by the Quran as just simple allegories.
So the Quran had to wait till the 20th century for this meaning to become apparent? I find this assertion as untenable as some other modern 'discoveries' pertaining to the Quran.
This kind of denial has happened before when revelations were challenged because they did not fit one’s ‘worldview’.
"...Bring us a reading other than this, or change this..." (10:15). Then there were those that changed words out of context later and pinned their own meanings to the text. (5:13: 5:41).
It would simply make no difference. They even made a mockery out of Prophet Jesus's example when it was quoted to them (43:57).
We may criticise the Ummah for disputations. But I ask with humbleness, how willing are we ourselves to accept the Quran at its word? We need to ask ourselves a very honest question:
"Do we impose our view on the Quran or do we simply accept what it says in clear Arabic?" I believe, deep down we know where we sit with this uncomfortable question and so does our Lord and Master.
Regards,
Joseph.
Related Articles:[1] 'BETWEEN HIS HANDS' OR 'BEFORE IT' (MA BAYNA YADAYHI)http://quransmessage.com/articles/between%20hands%20or%20before%20it%20FM3.htm[2] PEOPLE OF THE BOOK (JEWS & CHRISTIANS)http://quransmessage.com/articles/people%20of%20the%20book%20FM3.htm