why lailatul siam

Started by chadiga, February 21, 2013, 01:56:09 AM

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chadiga

February 21, 2013, 01:56:09 AM
Salam
i have a question about Sura al baqara. We found there the instruction for  fasting. We read in 2.187  uhilla lakum lailata assiyam rafathu ila nisaaikum...
lailata is in singular- how this is possible, when the shahr ramadan contents many nights? Or is this 'normal' arabic grammatic??
thanks for clarification
peace

HOPE

#1
February 21, 2013, 10:17:24 AM
Peace sister,

http://corpus.quran.com/wordbyword.jsp?chapter=2&verse=187

maybe this can help. laylatan

"Hope is like a bird that senses the dawn and carefully starts to sing while it is still dark"

Joseph Islam

#2
February 21, 2013, 10:23:26 PM
Dear Chadiga,

May peace be with you.

In reading the Arabic and the time adverb 'lailata', I find nothing unusual. In the context of the fasting month, the time adverb would simply refer to any typical fasting night.

I hope that helps, God willing.

Regards,
Joseph.
'During times of universal deceit, telling the truth becomes a revolutionary act' 
George Orwell

chadiga

#3
February 22, 2013, 10:23:35 PM
Salam
thanks for the answers. :)
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