questions regarding Bible both OT and NT and the Quran

[Nura]

Salamun Alaikum brother,
I would like to begin by thanking you for kindly answering my queries. Your answers were very helpful.
After reading your relevant articles some questions arose in my mind. I am sharing them with you.
I learnt from your article that the Quran confirmed the scripture(Bible..OT and NT) that was between the hands of the Arab Christians and Jews of that time. I want to know whether we as muslims can find religiously binding laws for us in the Quran? I mean you have previously shown from the Quran that the Quran does not  authorize Ahadith corpus as a sourse for religiously binding laws. Can you please tell me whether the Quran authorises the current Bible for muslims to follow laws present in the current Bible? If the Bible both OT and NT is religiously binding for muslims which version or translation do you recommend?

Thank you so much

[Nura]

I meant to ask whether the Quran authorizes the bible as a source of law for muslims? Sorry for the tuping mistake in my previous post.

[Joseph Islam]

Dear Nura,

Wa alaikum assalam

Making use of the Bible to confirm or elucidate some of the narratives of the Quran is one thing. To make use of the Bible for 'religious law' / 'judgment' is another. The Quran is the only source for judgment to be used by believers.

006:114 (part)
"Say: "Shall I seek for judge (Hakam) other than God? - when He is the One who has sent to you the Book, explained in detail (Arabic: Mufassalan)...

The Quran recognises differences in law for People of the Book and the believers.

005.048 (part)
"...To each among you have We prescribed A LAW (Arabic: Shir-atan) and an open way (Arabic: waminhajan). If God had so willed, He would have made you a single people, but (His plan is) to test you in what He has given you: so strive as in a race in all virtues. The goal of you all is to God; it is He that will show you the truth of the matters in which ye dispute”

The religion of submission is one (i.e. Islam). This was the same 'religion' revealed to all Prophets.

042.013
"The same religion (Arabic: Deen) has He established for you as that which He enjoined on Noah and that which We have sent by inspiration to thee and that which We enjoined on Abraham, Moses, and Jesus: Namely, that you should remain steadfast in religion, and make no divisions in it: to those who worship other things than God, hard is the (way) to which you call them. God chooses to Himself those whom He pleases, and guides to Himself those who turn (to Him)"

However, all adherents of the religion were expected to submit to their respective revealed laws. For the believers, their laws were revealed by the Quran, for the Children of Israel, it was the law given to Prophet Moses.

The analogy with the Ahadith corpus is respectfully inappropriate as this is not a source of law authorised by the Quran. The Quran rebukes those that make a source of law for themselves not ordained in religion.

042:021
“Or have they partners who have ordained (Arabic sharaa'u *) for them in religion that which God has not allowed? And if it was not for a decisive word, surely it would have been judged between them. And indeed! for wrong-doers is a painful doom”

* shara'a - to ordain, to enact a law, to lay down the law.

068:036-38
"What is wrong with you, how do you judge? Or do you have another book which you study? In it, you can find what you wish / choose?"

I hope that clarifies, God willing.

Regards,
Joseph.

[Nura]

Yes that helps..thank you

[Nura]

salam brother Joseph,

After reading your articles and your posts, I have learnt that the Quran provides a law and an open way for us and the people of the book.

You also said that the Quran asks the people of the book to consider it and accept it as truth. From your reply to my question, I understood that we are to believe that aspects of truth is present in the Bible but we are not to use it for extracting and formulating religious law.

You also said that the Bible was revealed as a source of law for the children of Israel. But is the Bible (only) supposed to remain the source of law for the children of Israel till the day of reckoning even after the Quran is revealed?

The Quran is revealed as a message for all of Alaameen, doesn't that include people of the book? if not, then how is the Quran a guidance for all of Alameen?

If a person( christian or jew) from the people of the book accepts the Quran as truth, can he/she then still follow only the laws present in the Bible? or in this case should he/she follow both the laws in the Quran and the Bible ( Bible + Quran)? is it enough for them to just believe in the veracity of the message of the Quran and follow only the Bible just like we are asked to recognize truth in the Bible but follow the laws in the Quran?

Thank you,

[Joseph Islam]

Please see responses here:

http://quransmessage.com/forum/index.php?topic=887.0

Peace and regards.