Salamun Alaikum
The Quran makes an
explicit statement in verse 2:230 that makes it
absolutely clear that a divorce would be required
‘fa-in tallaqaha' (Then if he divorces her).
"Then if he divorces her she shall not be lawful to him afterwards until she marries another husband; then if he divorces her (fa-in tallaqaha)…” 2:230 (part)
A woman can only have one husband at a time. This is made absolutely clear in verse 4:128 and the expression "
And if a woman (im'ra-atun) fears ill-conduct from on her husband (ba'liha)"The pronoun
'ha' in
'baliha' is in the 3rd person feminine singular and when used with an indefinite noun
'im'ratun' (a woman) as opposed to 'im'ra'atani' (two women) or 'nisa' (women), clearly shows that the Quran expects the condition:
1 woman = 1 husbandTherefore, your question cannot arise even if the explicit statement in 2:230 did not exist. The woman would need to be divorced from one husband before she can marry any other husband or even her previous husband.
However, a marriage and a divorce
cannot be
‘pre-empted’ either as
'mut'a [1] or for the purposes of
'hilla'. The ludicrous situation where men marry women for a small period of time (e.g. overnight), have intimate relations with them only so that they can be divorced the very next day to make them 'allegedly' lawful (hilla) for their previous husbands is a gross transgression, a
‘fahisha’, a sin and has no place in Islam.
The divorce process
can only be invoked and lawfully completed if it is carried out in accordance to the Quran with the correct intentions. Any other method has no warrant in Islam.
Please see below an overview illustration of the process.
ISLAMIC DIVORCEhttp://quransmessage.com/articles/divorce%20FM3.htmMay I humbly suggest that if you cannot understand the Quranic Arabic, that you please make use of other translations and not resort to the
rendition of one man or a group. Renditions such as QXP are heavily interpolated and are not intended to be seen as a 'translation'. However, verse 2:230 in the QXP also makes it clear that a divorce would be required. "2:230 If a man divorces his wife irrevocably, it will be unlawful for him to remarry her. However, if the woman marries another man and he divorces her, in that case there is no blame on either of them to re-unite..."
Regards,
Joseph.
PS: I know you have addressed your mail to the 'brothers'. However, there are many 'sisters' on this forum too
References:[1] NIKAAH AL-MUT'AH - TEMPORARY MARRIAGEhttp://quransmessage.com/articles/mut'ah%20FM3.htm[2] ISLAMIC DIVORCEhttp://quransmessage.com/articles/divorce%20FM3.htm