Messages

Salaam Wanderer

Nice article. I truly enjoyed reading it. I would also like to commend you on your site. It's well built (I say this a a part-time web designer) and contains good posts. I look forward to your next post(s).

Keep up the good work and I wish a bright future for you.

Peace.

Apparently I posted my previous reply at the same exact time as Hamzeh. Had I known of his reply earlier, I would have not posted mine (seeing as how we both gave similar responses to some of Sstikstof's questions). So apologies for the similarities in our replies.

Salaam Sstikstof,

I would like to answer some of the question you raised, hopefully the answers address your concerns:

1. Is it a sin to share a movie u bought with ur friends?

I don't see why that would be considered a sin. If you purchased the movies, then that, now, makes you the rightful owner of that copy of the movie and can, hence, do with it as you please (except when, otherwise, prohibited by the producers of said movies).

2. Is it a sin to photocopy a book for ur own benefit?

That would depend on if the author(s) of said book strictly forbid the reproduction of it.

5. Isnt it tantamount to sin when u download a material and sell it to market and profit from it? What would u call this act? Isnt this pure immoral act?

That depends....is the material you are selling already available to the public free of cost? If so, then I don't know if it would be a sin, but I wouldn't consider it a good business model.
But if said material is something that you yourself purchased and are not violating any license agreement, then I believe you can resell it; I don't see how that would be a sin.

8. Is driving a car without license a sin?

That would depend on the law of the state / country you live in.

9. Is it a sin to copy article from this forum?

Depends on whether the author(s) of said article / answers explicitly prohibit doing so (when asked).

Peace.

Salaam all,

Apologies for the late response, and much thanks to brother Joseph Islam and sisters Nura and Munir Rana for their great input on this topic.

God bless you all and may He continue to increase you all in knowledge (and wisdom) of his scripture(s).
Peace.

[On the Issue of Miracles]

Assalamu Alaikum to all,

Dear Abdurrahman,

The case you referred to was one of 'miracle'. Although not a direct answer to your question, you may find this short piece discussing Miracles in Islam (hope the moderators don;t mind me sharing it):

On the Issue of Miracles
https://logical-islam.quora.com/on-the-issue-of-Miracles

[Those who remember Allah, standing, sitting and lying on their sides, and reflect on the creation of the heavens and the earth (saying): 'Our Lord, You have not created this for nothing. Glory be to You! So safeguard us from the punishment of the Fire.]

Walikum Salam yahya,

Although it presents certain scientific information's, the Quran is not a book of science; it is book of guidance. The purpose of its revelation is not to teach people science of things that they can explore and learn on their own through observation, experimentation, and trial / error, nor to address every possible human scenario. Rather it's subject matter and primary intent is guidance – teaching human beings how to live in this world as moral beings so that they have the most optimum personality (individually) and the most optimum society (collectively) in this world and so that they will be successful in the Hereafter.

Therefore, my (limited but expanding) knowledge of the Quran leads me to the conclusion that the Quran is silent on this issue. But silence should not be taken to mean that (in this case) multi-universe don't exist; they may or may not; the only way to know is (as the Quran demands of us) go out and investigate it for ourselves.:


"Those who remember Allah, standing, sitting and lying on their sides, and reflect on the creation of the heavens and the earth (saying): 'Our Lord, You have not created this for nothing. Glory be to You! So safeguard us from the punishment of the Fire.'" [Quran: 3: 191]

Hope that helps.
Peace.

[[1]]

Salam brother Joseph and all other members on this forum. I hope you all are doing well and I hope Allah has been good to you all. I have a question which I would like brother Joseph Islam (and all the other members on this forum) opinion.

In one of your articles in which you addressed the term Kafir / Kufr you made the following statement:

'Kufr' (disbelief) has little to do with disbelief in God. Even Satan was termed a 'disbeliever' (wakana mina'l KAFIREEN 2:34) yet he clearly believed in and feared God.:

"Indeed I am clear of you, indeed I see what you do not see, INDEED I FEAR GOD; and God is severe in requiting (evil)" [Quran 8:48]

"Like the example of Satan when he says to man: "Disbelieve", but when he disbelieves, he [Satan] says: "Indeed, I am clear of you. INDEED I FEAR GOD, the Lord of the worlds" [Quran 59:16][1]

This, therefore, lead me to asking the following question:

If Satan fears Allah (as shown in the aforementioned verses) then why do you believe he disobeyed Allah when he was instructed to bow down to Adam? Why does he "persist" in his evil ways and is "hell-bent" on mislead men? Surely if he fears Allah and is cognizant of the fact that Allah is sever in punishment then one would expect that he would cease his ways, correct? So why hasn't he?

Thanks in advance to all for there humble answers.

[1] http://quransmessage.com/articles/understanding%20kufr%20FM3.htm

[clear, unambiguous and unequivocal support from the Quran]

Salaam munir rana,

Surprisingly, many of our society believes that, if any muslim, who believed but have done wrong to themselves, will go to hell but after their due punishment they will enter paradise.

When it comes to ANY religious assertions or theological standpoints (such as this one) they / it must find clear, unambiguous and unequivocal support from the Quran (as beautifully stated by brother Joseph Islam in one of his articles); as it is the Quran that is the primary and ultimate authority from God and the foundation of the Islamic faith. But if an alleged doctrine or theological standpoint is absent from the Quran (i.e finds no support from the Quran) then it means that said doctrine is false, has no part in Islam and must thus be rejected. This, therefore, holds true for the claim that Muslims who "believed", yet still end up in hell will some how (after receiving due punishment) be removed from said punishment. The burden is upon those who share his belief to provide clear, unambiguous and unequivocal support / verses from the Quran in support of this belief.

God knows best.

Salaam wanderer,

With regards to the verse you're alluding to, I appreciate Mr. Assads explanation of it:

This literal interpretation (probably based on the Biblical account in Exodus xxxii, 26-28) is not, however, convincing in view of the immediately preceding call to repentance and the subsequent statement that this repentance was accepted by God. I incline, therefore, to the interpretation given by 'Abd al-Jabbar (quoted by Razi in his commentary on this verse) to the effect that the expression "kill yourselves" is used here in a metaphorical  sense (majazan), i.e., "mortify yourselves".

Salam Wanderer,

I don't believe the Quran (or Allah) values daughters / women over boys / men.

Both are a creation of Allah, and many verses attest to how both are equal under the "eyes" of Allah and how both will receive equal reward(s) for their acts. The Quran also makes it clear that that the only basis of superiority and excellence that there is, or can be, between us is that of moral excellence / righteousness:

"O mankind, indeed We have created you from male and female and made you peoples and tribes that you may know one another. Indeed, the most noble of you in the sight of Allah is the most righteous of you. Indeed, Allah is Knowing and Acquainted." [Quran 49:13]

[/i]

Now, with respect to those verses which supposedly seem to indicate that daughters are somehow less than sons it is vital to keep in mind the context / era in which those verses were released. The era / time of prophet Muhammad (pbuh) was one in which women were seen, by the pagan Arabs, as inferior (physically and mentally) and unequal to men and hence regarded them (their daughters) as a mere liability and their birth as a disgrace; therefore, those verses are obviously ironical and in a way rhetorical, as well.

Hope that clears it up

You're welcome brother Joseph. And thank you for your kind words and the wisdom / knowledge you have shared with us in your many articles and Facebook posts, may God bless you in this world and the next for that.

You're also welcome brother Hassan3000.

And peace to you as well eliiah.

[fair]

Salaam Hassan3000,

Although your question is directed at brother Joseph I would like to share with you my humble response.

I believe, as brother Joseph alluded to in one of his articles, that the directive here was, first and foremost, to the contemporaries of the Prophet who were the direct addressees. It is they who were being instructed to submit to the judgement of the prophet.

Secondly, if the verse you've cited is read in conjunction with verse 60:12 then it becomes clear that submission to his judgement is only allowed when his judgement is shown to be fair, just and right and in-line with the book of Allah (the Quran)
This understanding is also reinforced by the directive: "and then find within themselves no discomfort from what you have judged" in the verse you cited.

Furthermore, I believe that albeit they are the same person, a distinction must be made between 'Muhammad the messenger / prophet' and 'Muhammad the man / husband / father'.
Muhammad, in his capacity as a man / husband / father, would not have (in his general judgement) been 'infallible / flawless', and made occasional mistakes / errors, as clearly noted from these Quranic verses: 9:43, 80:1-10, 66:1. These minor errors / mistakes were, however, invariably pointed out to him, and thus rectified, through divine revelation. Judgments made by Muhammad (pbuh) in his capacity as a man / husband / father must be accepted only when they are shown to be just [/b]and right and in-line with the book of Allah (the Quran).
Whereas Muhammad, in his capacity as a messenger / prophet, (entrusted to deliver the Quran) would NOT have made any mistakes / errors, as he was under divine guidance / influence (53:3-4; 69:44-48; 15:9).
Therefore, I believe the verse you cited was asking the contemporaries of the Prophet to accept (and act upon) the judgement of Muhammad (pbuh) made in his capacity as a prophet, and sense those judgments were made by Muhammad in his capacity as a messenger / prophet (which meant he was under divine influence) they must'v be right and just.

That is my humble understating. Any critique is welcomed.
Peace.

[(سراً / secretly)]

Salaam ilker,

You asked:

How do you define "dating" or "flirting" ? Do these always include forbidden actions / intimacy ?

Dating definitely does not carry the same meaning for Muslims as it does for non-Muslims, especially Westerners. Touching, kissing, and similar actions are, of course, regarded to be haram therefore they are prohibited until two people are considered legally and religiously married. Meeting, going out together and talking, on the other hand, are of course allowed because two people need the opportunity to familiarize themselves with each other and "fall in love".

----------------

I want to know your opinions on "getting to know each other" before the marriage.

Is it haraam in Islam to meet someone to have some time and learn about each other's personalities ? What are the limits?

I find no reason (nor any prohibition in the Quran) why future spouses can't / shouldn't meet one another in an attempt to get to know one another better so as to decide if they are 'right' for each other. I believe the following verse supports this:

"You {believing men} do nothing wrong when you announce your engagement to women, or when you keep it between yourselves. Allah knows that you will think of them. But do not make secret appointments to see them, UNLESS YOU WILL ENGAGE IN GOOD/CONSCIENTIOUS CONVERSATION. And do not confirm the marital tie until the prescribed (waiting) period is over. Know that Allah knows what is in your minds, so beware of Him, and know that Allah is All-Forgiving, Forbearing." (Qur'an 2:235)

The above verse seems to be implying that it is permissible for a believing man and a woman to be alone (سراً / secretly) together provided their intentions are correct i.e. قَوْلا مَعْرُوفا (good / conscientious conversations take place).

Furthermore, the words: "Allah knows that you will think of them", is an additional indication. Since Allah says, "Allah knows that you will think of them", it shows that these arbitrary individuals may have already met, and know each other from the past at a personal level - otherwise, a believing man would not think of her for marriage.[1]

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Is "arranged marriage" the only halal/legal way ?

Certainly not. The Quran doesn't lay out how a marriage should come about; it is simply silent on this matter. And as brother Joseph Islam has so often alluded to: When it comes to the Quran, silence does not mean absence; It means fluidity and option. Those matters / issues, such as this one, which the Quran is silent on is meant to allow the ummah (community) the freedom and flexibility to best decide how to approach a given issue. The Quran does not intend to address every possible human scenario and prescribe a religious edict to it. It provides necessary guidance, where necessary, for one to take from it the best meaning (39:18), apply it to the best of one's abilities (64:16) and not to unduly complicate religion without warrant.
So with respect to meeting ones potential spouse, any method which does not contravene the Qurans message (on this matter) is acceptable; regardless of whichever method is practiced in a particular community / culture women must never be inherited against their will (See: Quran 4:19).

[1] http://www.quranicpath.com/misconceptions/lowering_gaze.html

[WAS THE PROPHET MUHAMMAD (pbuh) REALLY ILLITERATE?]

Salaam Abdurrahman,

In regards to you inquiry, I believe you may find the following article helpful:

WAS THE PROPHET MUHAMMAD (pbuh) REALLY ILLITERATE?

http://quransmessage.com/articles/was%20the%20prophet%20muhammad%20really%20illiterate%20FM3.htm

Peace to you.

Salaam Hamzeh,

Thank you for sharing that. I, too, have at times wondered a similar thing as that of the sister you mentioned.
It is a pity that some 'Quran-only' adherents have abandoned certain rituals (such as the salat) on the grounds that said rituals supposedly find no support from the Quran.
Indeed, my Allah have mercy on us all bless and guide us all to the truth.