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286
Sallam Brother
 
 In verses of the Quran which mention the specific Word Nabi /Prophet (oppose to Messenger), is it correct to understand that those verses 'only applied' at the time the Prophet was alive? i.e. all or nearly all?

Verses where the word Nabi is mentioned, seem to be a specific instruction at the time of the Prophets life. 

I am not in any way suggesting these verses are not valid! Just as we have verses from the Quran which talk about past events.
 
Sallam
 

287
Q&As with Joseph Islam - Information Only / Women's Dress Code
« on: May 14, 2012, 04:16:17 AM »
Sallm Brother Joseph
 
I have read your article on Women's 'Dress code' (24,31)
 
Could you please tell me, what is meant by 'lengten your dress' in 33.59?
 
Sallam and thank you
 

288
Salamun alikum

Dear Brother

In Surah 33:56 "Allah and His angels send blessings on the Prophet: O ye that believe! Send ye blessings on him, and salute him with all respect."

In the above verse God says us to send blessings to Prophet and salute him with respect, with this verse my friends questioning me that how will you send blessings to Prophet and should say salawat to Prophet by sayings from Hadith states  " Allahumma salli ala  muhammadan wala ali muhammadan kama sallaith ala ibrahima wala ali ibrahima.................innaka hammedun majid"

In this way, my friends are questioning me so please clarify the confusion and how we can send blessing to Prophet?

Thank you

289
Salamun alikum Brother

I am in disagreement with my friends who uphold the traditional view and argue with me regarding the moon split in Quran. Surah 54:1 "The Hour has come near, and the moon has split [in two]."

Based on this surah my friends are arguing that Prophet had split the moon in two by index fingers and trying to prove that Hadith is true

Please can you give me your perspective and explanation about the Surah 54:1



290
Q&As with Joseph Islam - Information Only / Testimony
« on: May 14, 2012, 01:20:07 AM »
Dear Brother Joseph,

Salaam alaikum.

I have another question please - all muslims when reverting/converting/or testifying say: "I testify there is no god but God and Muhammad is the prophet of God" - my questions that instantly come to mind -

  • Why do we have to testify regarding the prophet?
  • What about the other prophets? Are they not God's prophets too? Why never mention them too? God says to us to never discriminate between them, so by saying the above aren't we doing just that? I'm sorry i don't mean to be disrespectful but i feel that the last part of the statement is not necessary or should be changed. Also this exact statement is not found like this for us to say by the Quran. I mean we're not told to say it like this.
  • I have seen all over the world by scholars e.g. i saw a video by Yusuf Estes just recently converting someone to Islam. (http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=TKAL0YSDHIs&feature=player_embedded if you want to see).  He said to say the above in english 1st then in Arabic.
  • I think that saying that u believe in God and testifying is not necessary in ARABIC! it can be done in any desired language. And also why publicly? or say with the help of by someone e.g. a scholar. i think if you start to believe in God than the 1st place it comes from is your heart and mind and then you just find your way with the God.

I'm not sure how you perceive, but e.g. I've seen a documentary on Steve Jobs. I always used to wonder what really happens or will happen to all the so so talented and artistic or creative people who are non-muslims? in the documentary they mentioned that Steve Jobs started thinking and believing that a God, a ONE GOD, does exist and that his return was now going to be to Him. Isn't that the definition of being a Muslim? I know a gazillion Muslim nations out there would never agree with me out there. I'd probably be killed even for "creating mischief in the land" (and that is not the context of the phrase even).

Anyways so my question is about testifying please.

regards,

291
Q&As with Joseph Islam - Information Only / Regarding Translations
« on: May 14, 2012, 01:13:36 AM »
 
Salaam alaikum brother Joseph,

I have a question regarding the translations of the Quran that we rely on i.e. the non-arabic speaking or arabic language understanding. I got quite harsh comments from some of my arab friends that i don't understand anything from the Quran & they understand because I am not arab and that I don't know the arabic language or understand it.

My belief is that if God has said that He will protect His Book, He will do so in whatever language it may be in, because He is the one Who has created them for us. I know there are various types of translations e.g. Pickthall, Yusuf Ali(i rely on this one), etc. But the translations i've compared are very similar and lead to the same idea for an ayah. But some are different. What do things in brackets mean? are they the opinions of the translators?

1st Question - what should i do? should i get an arabic language learning course? I know how to read the recitations on arabic only. (But in my opinion most arabs don't understand even what they're reading - in arabic!)

2nd Question - do you think the translations have changed the Message from the original intent of the statements? will we ever really get the true essence of God's Message (before we face God and He tells us), i.e. us the non-arabic speaking/non-arabs? (The Arabs are so proud that the Quran is in their language & they think they are the ones who understand it best! And so they pity us and think that's why we go astray by not following the Hadiths etc.)

regards,

292
Dear Mr. Joseph,

Does 4:19 gives woman right to seek divorce like a man does?

What is the meaning of Tarisu-nnisa? Is it 'property of woman' or 'woman taken as inherited property' i.e. taken for granted.

Rgds

293
Discussions / Dr. Shabbir's Views on Graven Images
« on: May 14, 2012, 12:20:00 AM »

Salam, What does 'graven images' mean in the post below by Dr. Shabbir? Is it meant to be general or specific? Also, is it true that Muslim scholars used Jewish traditions into hadith. thanks.

http://ourbeaconforum.com/cgi-bin/bbs60x/webbbs_config.pl/page/1/md/read/id/314123119176993

294
Sir,

How can we pray in congregation on friday if there is not a particular way of salah? Suppose all the quran alone muslims gather tomorrow for prayer, how will we pray?

295
Dear Mr. Joseph,

Does 4:19 gives woman right to seek divorce like man does?

what is meaning of Tarisu-nnisa ( property of woman) or ( woman taken as inherited property i.e. taken for granted ).

Rgds

296
Peace brother Joseph,

I would like to get a better understanding of the verse 23:6 .

23:6 (Picktall) Save from their wives or the (slaves) that their right hands possess, for then they are not blameworthy,
23:6 (Y. Ali) Except with those joined to them in the marriage bond, or (the captives) whom their right hands possess,- for (in their case) they are free from blame, 
23:6 (Asad) [not giving way to their desires] with any but their spouses - that is, those whom they rightfully possess [through wedlock]: [3] for then, behold, they are free of all blame,

This is in the context of permissible category of sex also defines what constitutes adultery(zina) according to Quran


•  23:5 (Asad) and who are mindful of their chastity,
•  23:5 (Y. Ali) Who abstain from sex, 
•  23:5 (Picktall) And who guard their modesty

Now as I know from your following article  you mentioned the different meaning of the idiom "those that your right hands possess"  also sex is prohibited without marriage.

http://quransmessage.com/articles/sex%20with%20slave%20girls%20FM3.htm

So what should be the proper meaning of this idiom in the context of 23:6 which gives the permission of sex with mates (azwajihim )  OR "those that your right hands possess". It does not mention explicitly  that it required to marry these category of "those that your right hands possess"   .

This verse is often quoted by people wrongly translating the idiom "those that your right hands possess" as slaves  also to point out that Quran  is actually permitting to have sex with slave girls without marriage.

I have found some explanation of this verse regarding what should be the proper meaning of "those that your right hands possess"   in this context. For example as follows it says this category was concubines before revelation of Quran so it was not required to marry them after revelation of Quran. How appropriate is this explanation ?  Also does this applies to modern day?

Edip-Layth - End Note 1 (23:6)
It refers to those who were concubines before the revelation that prohibited slavery and gave them freedom. Though the Quran prohibited slavery for muslims, at that time, slavery and wars were the reality of the polytheistic world. Prohibited relationships that started before the revelation of the Quran, were not asked to be voided, since that would create bigger psychological, economic and social problems. In other words, the laws of the Quran in the sphere of marriage relationships was not applied retroactively (4:22-23). Also, see 4:3,25; 90:1-20.

297
Peace brother Joseph,

Is the following translation correct "He improved you in creation"?

Does it imply some linkage with evolution / large stature?

7:69 “Are you surprised that a reminder has come to you from your Lord through a man from amongst you to warn you? Recall that he made you successors after the people of Noah, and He improved you in creation. So recall God’s blessings that you may succeed.”

Regards,

298
Q&As with Joseph Islam - Information Only / Meaning of 'Khalifa'
« on: May 06, 2012, 10:17:27 AM »
Peace brother Joseph,

I have another question in regards to verse 2:30. Here a Human being is mentioned as a successor ( khalifa) of God or successor of previous species in the line of evolution as mentioned in the following article?

http://19.org/816/islamic-theory-evolution/

Please can you explain.

Regards,

299
Salamun alikum Brother,

In your article you have explained about 5 Prayers in Quran with references but in Quran by name 3 prayers has mentioned and 2 by periods.
   
In your article you have mentioned 5 times prayers and in that 3 prayers (Fajr,Wusta, Isha) has mentioned by name as Salat, but remaining Asr, Magrib is mentioned to Glorify or Praise the Lord and not as word Salat.

God has used the word Glorify or Praise the Lord and not as Salat for the periods (Asr, Magrib)

Asr Prayer

050:039           
“Therefore be patient of what they say, and sing the praise of your Lord before the rising of the sun and before the setting”

020.130
“Therefore be patient with what they say, and celebrate (constantly) the praises of thy Lord, before the rising of the sun (Arabic: Qabla taluhe- Shams - i.e. Fajr), and before its setting (Arabic: Qabla gharubiha - i.e. Asr); yea, celebrate them for part of the hours of the night, and at the sides of the day (Arabic: Watarafa l-nahari - i.e. Fajr and Isha): that you may have (spiritual) joy”

In the above two verses you have pointed out for Asr Prayer, in these verses the word Salat not mentioned instead it say us to Praise or Glorify our Lord.

Magrib Prayer

011:114
“And establish regular prayers at the two ends (Arabic: Salata Tarafa) of the day and at the approaches of the night (Arabic: wa-zulafan mina al-layl): For those things, that are good remove those that are evil: Be that the word of remembrance to those who remember (their Lord)”
 
In the above verse you have pointed out for Magrib prayer.

In the above verse you have taken the word {two ends (Arabic: Salata Tarafa) of the day} to refer Fajr and Magrib and taken the word {and at the approaches of the night (Arabic: wa-zulafan mina al-layl)} to refer Isha.

Some other scholars defines “two ends of the day” in the verses refers to Fajr and Isha prayers but you are referring to Fajr and Magrib, and you are pointing out the word {and at the approaches of the night (Arabic: wa-zulafan mina al-layl)} referring to Isha prayer.

You have taken “WA” (and) a conjunction as a separator and pointed out to Isha prayer.
The “WA” comes in the verse (wa-zulafan mina al-layl) meaning “and” a conjunction plays a crucial role

Please see the below paragraphs explaining about function of “WA” in Arabic

The function of 'wa' in Arabic and its role in the Quran
 
When we hear the word 'wa', otherwise translated as the conjunction 'and' we tend to think of it as something additional. This is especially true of those who are English-speaking. While the conjunction does serve this function, it also has an explicatory role in classical Arabic as pointed out by Javed Ghamidi, meaning the grammatical role of 'adding' is not present. 'Wa' becomes essentially a case of 'defining' and 'clarifying'. This point needs to be understood especially in regards to the Quran, because often time’s commentaries miss this point and translations almost never capture this reality and one loses out in the subtleties of the Quranic rhetoric.

The following is an example of what is meant by the above 'explanatory' role:
 
Believers! Fear God as you rightly should, WA when you leave this world leave it as followers of Islam...(3:102)

Many commentators take this as two separate injunctions, not attempting to connect the two.

But the second phrase is defining the first phrase of the verse and not separating the phrases.


So the function of “WA” in Arabic play many roles to define and it raised a question in the way you have explained in your article THE FIVE PRAYERS FROM THE QURAN

And also in Old Testament we can find the prophets prayed three times a day.

"As for me, I will call upon God; and the Lord shall save me. Evening, and morning, and at noon, will I pray, and cry aloud: and he shall hear my voice." (Psalms 55:16-17) (PS: crying aloud apparently means praying with passion).

"Now when Daniel knew that the writing was signed, he went into his house; and his windows being open in his chamber toward Jerusalem, he kneeled upon his knees three times a day, and prayed, and gave thanks before his God, as he did aforetime." (Daniel 6:10)

The followers of Shiite sect observe 5 prayers in 3 times: morning, noon and evening.

These findings regarding prayers from different books, sects, scholars thoughts makes us think more deeply that why not the medieval traditionalist might have changed the 3 prayers in to 5 prayers to show off more devotion to God.

Please give a vivid description regarding times of prayer.

Thank You

300
Salaam,

I'm trying to understand the start/ end times (not times as in clock times) of prayers. For example today Shafi jurists say asr prayer is at 17.05 whereas Hanafi jurists say it is around 18.00. It seems odd to me that there could be such a large difference for the same prayer.

Now I feel that these are possibly both suitable times to pray, but what would be a cut off time from the zuhr prayer? Or in general the cut off times for each prayer becoming time for the next?

Clearly there were no clocks to determine these in those times, and I also acknowledge that advances in technology can be used to help determine this. However, I have a feeling that this also may be unnecessary, as it is possible to determine the period of prayer just from looking outside and having an estimate of the period of the day.

Regards,

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