Messages

[remembrance/ bear in mind]

Dear All,
Assalaamu 'alaikum

In all the places where the slaughtering of animals are mentioned in the Qur'an, the root dh-k-r is used (as I observed), and which basically means remembrance/ bear in mind. The word used for the Swalah in Qur'an also having the same root (e.g. 20:14).
In many translations/ articles it is said mention /utter /pronounce the name of Allah before slaughtering. But I doubt that Is simple mentioning or pronouncement or utterance enough during slaughtering?, while one can mention/ pronounce words even without the involvement of mind. Is it the proper way of Islamic slaughtering ?
Also, the term 'Halal meat' is wide spread nowadays and the product is available in different brand names, but when the criterion followed by majority to make the meat halal is just pronouncing/mentioning the name of Allah, How can we accept such products?

Dear Brother,
Assalaamu 'alaikum

The verse (5:6) says about 4 special cases
1. Illness.
2. On a journey.
3. Have been to the toilet.
4. Touched woman (with an intention to feel).

If any of the above mentioned cases happened with us, then it is mandatory to take ablution (or tayammam-when no water found) prior to Swalah. And if it (any of the 4 cases) did not happen, then it is not necessary (as I understood) to take ablution but better to keep ourselves mentally and physically clean throughout the interval. And in case if any physical impurity, other than the 4 cases happened, then we should clean it as soon as possible.

Sorry,
Not pbuh, I meant the phrase 'Sal-Allahu-alaihiwa-sallam'

['lla']

Dear All,
Assalaamu 'alaikum

We should think in this way also,

Given the example of the Prophet Moses when he met a knowledgeable slave of Allah, and he killed a boy then Prophet Moses questioned him.

"So they left/set out until when they met/found a servant/boy, so he killed him. He (Moses) said: "Did you kill a pure self without a self? You had come (with) an awful/obscene thing." (18:74)

Later he clarified the reason to Prophet Moses,

"And as for the boy/servant, so his parents were believing, so we feared that he burdens/oppresses them (with) tyranny/arrogance and disbelief." (18:80)

Here the boy was killed because, in future he might be turning against Allah.

And, I want to inform you that I found the term 'lla' (mentioned in previous reply) in two more verses where it is used in opposite sense (4:114 and 56:79). I don't know whether this term means 'no' or 'do'. It may be used for emphasis.
and Allah knows best.

["They did not evaluate/estimate Allah His deserved/true value/estimation/capability, that truly Allah (is) powerful/strong, glorious/mighty."]

From the Qur'an,
"They did not evaluate/estimate Allah His deserved/true value/estimation/capability, that truly Allah (is) powerful/strong, glorious/mighty." (22:74).
"Your Lord's praise/glory, Lord (of) the glory/might/power about what they describe/categorize." (37:180)


The Ultimate truth we all know is that Allah is THE MERCIFUL - THE ABSOLUTE; THE COMPASSIONATE - THE ABSOLUTE; THE WISE/ JUDICIOUS -THE ABSOLUTE and in all sense He is THE ABSOLUTE, THE OMNIPOTENT. So whether in this world or hereafter, the whole universe is under His judgement by each fraction of seconds. His judgement will never have any faults; free of all imperfections. We all are under His judgement always. So WE ALWAYS GET SERVED WITH WHAT WE DESERVE.

Then how come the innocents were burnt alive/ the innocent son of Adam killed ? Did THE MERCIFUL - THE ABSOLUTE; THE WISE/JUDICIOUS - THE ABSOLUTE  was unaware of it ? Or He is The Omnipotent only in the hereafter ?, Not in this world ?? Will THE MERCIFUL treat His creation unjustly in this world ? It is impossible even to imagine such a concept when Qur'an says "Kataba 'ala nafsihi l-rahma" (He decreed on Himself the mercy, 6:12), "Kataba rabbukum 'ala nafsihi l-rahma" (your Lord decreed on Himself the mercy, 6:54).

But what actually happened in the above referenced article is that brother Joseph Islam added his own words in his interpretation. The word 'innocent' is nowhere had I found in the Qur'an that appears with the above mentioned person/ believers. And He also said Adam's son committed no crime.

he stated:
1. Calamities even befell the innocent where they were killed in the most distressing manner. Some were simply burnt alive only because they said they believed. (85:4-8)
2. Adam's son, who was wholly innocent, was slaughtered by the hands of his own brother. He committed no crime and was simply murdered... (5:27-30)

But how one can guess the past deeds of the people mentioned in the above verses ?

Is it like, the believers will always be sinless ? while the verse 8:29 says,

"You, you those who believed if you are careful of Allah/ fear and obey Allah, He makes/creates for you a Separation of Right and Wrong, and He covers/substitutes from you your sins/crimes, and forgives for you, and Allah (is Owner) of the grace/favour/blessing, the great."
[Remember even many of the Prophets committed sin including Prophet Muhammad (47:19, 48:2)]

And brother Joseph Islam also stated: "There is no exclusivity that calamity will only afflict the wrong-doers. Indeed, calamities will also afflict the innocent, the righteous".

Remember that none of us came in to this world by our own efforts. We came only by the mercy of Allah, He gave us the soul, He gave us the physical structure that we have and He only giving our provision. So He is the 'Sole Responsible' to take care of each of His creation. Then how come that innocents were killed in the most distressing manner in THE MERCIFUL'S Dominion?

and he translated the verse 8:25,
"And guard yourselves against a chastisement which cannot fall exclusively (khassah) on those of you who are wrong-doers, and know that God is severe in punishment."

The term 'lla tusweebanna' is mistranslated. The same did by many translators. Note that here 'lla' is used, usually for getting the opposite meaning 'laa' is using in Arabic.
I request you all to find the true meaning of this term.

The verse literally means,
"And fear (and avoid a) test/torture (that) strikes/hits especially/specifically those who caused injustice/oppression from you, and know that God (is) strong (severe in) the punishment." (M.Ahmed)
"Do your duty lest dissension strike those of you especially who do wrong. Know that God is Severe in punishment." (T.B.Irving)


So from the Qur'an it is understood that may all will undergo through various trials, but the severity of the trials will depends on one's past deeds.

"Who created the death/lifelessness and the life to test you which of you (is) better (in) deeds, and He is the glorious/mighty, the forgiving.' (67:2)

"And We will test you until We know the struggling/defending (for the faith) from you, and the patient, and We test/justify your news/information/knowledge." (47:31)

"And what struck/hit you from a disaster so (it is) because (of) what your hands gathered/acquired, and He forgives/pardons on much." (42:30)

"And if We made the people taste/experience mercy, they became happy/delighted with it, and if a sin/crime (harm) hits/strikes them because (of) what their hands advanced/introduced, then they, they despair." (30:36)

"The corruption/disorder appeared/became visible in the shore/land and sea/ocean because (of) what the people's hands earned/gained/acquired to make them taste/experience some/part of what they made/did, maybe/perhaps they return." (30:41)

"...so if they turned away, so know that what Allah wants that (He) strikes/hits them with some/part (of) their crimes, and indeed many of the people (are) debauchers." (5:49)

"What struck you from a goodness, so (it is) from at Allah, and what struck you from a sin/crime (harm) so (it is) from your self, and We sent you to the people, (as) a messenger and enough with Allah, (as) a witness/present." (4:79)


Many of us may have the experiences of suffering of our beloved ones with extreme pain/ difficulty, but one thing we should know that whether it is mother/father/spouse/children or friend, we can't judge any individual-who they are inside actually, as Allah knows them. We are knowing them only through their outer expressions which they show to us, we are having no way to know individual's inside. Some will be truthful and some will never be.

Qur'an gives an example of the Prophet Nooh and his son, (11:45-46)
45. "And Noah called/cried (to) his Lord so he said: "My Lord, that my son (is) from my family, and that your promise (is) the truth, and you are most judicious (of) the judges/rulers."
46. "He said: "You Noah, that he is not from your family/relation/people. That his deed is not correct/righteous, so do not question/ask Me, what is not with knowledge to you with it (you have no knowledge of), that I advise you that you be from the lowly/ignorant."

Here it is clear that the Prophet Noah was not having the knowledge of something about his son (which leads his son to destruction).

[junubi]

Dear All,
Assalaamu 'alaikum

Many exegetists translated the term 'Junub' as ceremonial impurity.

In my humble view, the term refers no any specific impurity but it represents the state of being impure (any impurity which should be washed).

From Qur'an itself we will get the meaning of the term. In 4:36, the term 'Wal jaari-l-junubi' means 'the neighbour (who is) distant/not close/farther away'

Since the verses 4:43 and 5:6 say about purification prior to Swalah, here the term may refers 'a state of being impure (being distant from pure state)/ a state of being distant from Allah' (because- "He loves/likes the pure/clean", 2:222)

So, in 4:43 Qur'an says, "Walaa junuban illaa 'aabiree sabeelin hataa taghta'siluu" (And nor distant (impure/unclean), except crossing/passing a road/way, until you wash yourselves) and in 5:6 "Wa-inkunthum junuban fatwahharoo" (and if you were impure/unclean so be purified/cleaned).

So it tells the importance of being clean, we have to wash quickly if we came in contact with any impurity. "Walaa junuban illaa 'aabiree sabeelin hataa taghta'siluu" (4:43) tells that we should not be in a state of 'being impure' except the time of crossing/passing the way to wash/clean it (to reach at water).

Thanks Dear muneer.

In my view when we are acting / watching (movie or drama), we are cheating ourselves . Because when we are acting in a movie or in a drama we are not real, we are just making fraud expressions i.e. we know already that we are acting, still we are expressing something else which is not ours at that time, more clearly, our outer expressions and inner feelings do not coincide. A truthful man will always be in a state of balancing outer expressions with inner feelings involuntarily. But when we are acting, we are voluntarily interrupting this system. i.e. we are showing outside what is not inside (completely fraud).

Can a bird/ an animal act in a role other than its own ? They are always be real. They don't know to be fraud.
The same happens when we are watching a movie/drama- we know that what we are watching is not real, but still we are forcefully trying to adjust our mind according to the seen.

Regards,

Dear All,
Assalaamu 'alaikum.

What is the reason behind illnesses/ diseases ? Why such painful condition happens to/with mankind ? Why some babies born handicapped ? Is it true the claim that these are part of the 'Trials' ??

[We are not allowed to assign any attribute to Allah for which He has not sent down any authority]

Dear Brother,
Kindly please see the above verses (7:33, 2:80)
We are not allowed to assign any attribute to Allah for which He has not sent down any authority. And we cannot say anything about Allah which we don't know. None of us 100% sure that there is nothing wrong in saying Allahu akbar since the term is not in the Qur'an.
And also when we are praying we should know what we are saying (4:43). Imagine when one perform the Swalah in english will he say 'Allah is the greater' ?
I Wonder why people are this much obstinate !
I believe, the term 'Allahu akbar' is imitated by people only because of their careless nature. They are not trying to know what they are saying actually.
Howmany beautiful words are there to Glorify Allah from the Qur'an ! Still they want to continue to use some words which they got from their forefathers and they do not know its meaning properly !!

[timed practice of worship]

Dear All,
Assalaamu 'alaikum

What about the funeral prayer (Janaza prayer), which is followed by majority of the people. Is it agreeable ?

Remembering,
1. Swalah is a timed practice of worship,  And Allah has already given the times for Swalah. So no point of performing Swalah other than the mentioned times.
2. Swalah is always to remember Allah.

Dear All,
Assalaamu 'alaikum

The verse (9:99) mentions 'Swalawaati rrasool' is 'spending' (Swadaqa).
Does this means the command in verse 33:56 is for giving Swadaqa ?

[otherwise by the end of 2nd Iddat period itself the marriage will become invalid]

Still I am not getting the concept of initiating a 'third divorce' (In the Illustration of Joseph Islam) to become the marital bond invalid.
According to Qur'an if the couple want to live together as before then they have to take the decision within the 2nd Iddat period, otherwise by the end of 2nd Iddat period itself the marriage will become invalid. Nowhere it is mentioned initiation of a 3rd divorce to end the marriage bond.

"You, you the prophet, if you divorced the women, so divorce them to their term, and count/calculate the term..."(65:1), "So if they reached (completed) their term/time, so hold/grasp them with kindness/generosity or separate from them with kindness/generosity..." (65:2)

[greater]

Dear Brother,
The term Allahu Akbar is un-Qur'anic, nowhere in Qur'an, does we find Allah (Swt), referring to Himself as Akbar. While the term Akbar used in many places in Qur'an to compare things (e.g. 2:219). Akbar does not mean "Great" or "Greatest", it means "greater". To refer to Allah as greater, is to compare Him to something, because "greater" is a comparative term and Allah cannot be compared to anything. Hence when people say Allahu Akbar, they are, in fact, saying Allah is the "greater". Given that, Allah calls Himself as Al-Kabeer, The Incomparably Great, for anyone to then call Him the "greater", is to negate the very name which He gave Himself-Al Kabeer, because "greater" is beyond "great". Further, Allah, cannot have competing names, meaning, He cannot be Al Kabeer, the Great and Akbar, the greater, because how can He be greater than Himself ?. I know / I believe that majority of the people are using the term Allahu Akbar without knowing the meaning but with an intention to glorify Allah as you said. But how one could perform the Swalah without knowing what he is saying? See the verse (4:43) "You, you those who believed, do not approach the prayers and you are intoxicated, until you know what you are saying...".  In addition, nowhere does Allah, as with Akbar, ever refer to Himself as Al Akbar.

Remember The verse 7:33, "Say: the things that my Lord hath indeed forbidden are: shameful deeds, whether open or secret; sins and trespasses against the truth or reason; and that you share/make partners/associate with Allah that for which He has not sent down any authority; and that you say on (about) Allah what you do not know".
When you use Allahu Akbar, you say of Allah that which you do not know and you associate with a name for which He has not given any authorization. i.e. an ayat using that designation in regard to Himself.
Allah has not given us the authority to assign attributes to Him.
2:80 "And they say: the fire shall not touch us but for a few numbered days; Say: Have you taken a promise from Allah, for He never breks His Promise? Or is it that you say of Allah what you do not know?"

[the Iddat period will repeat twice.]

Dear All
Assalaamu 'alaikum.

I am really sorry that I took your time and I am sorry for the wrong Illustration which I gave because of my limited knowledge, And I am thankful to you for giving the circumstance to analyse the verse more deeply.
The change in my explanation is this, the Iddat period will repeat twice.

So for a normal couple the divorce will be as follows (when reconciliation fails in all stages):
Admonition/mutual reconciliation--> 4 month abstention--> Initiation of first divorce (if needed/ fear any dissention, two just persons from both family can help for reconciliation, 4:35)--> completion of Iddat period --> Initiation of 2nd divorce --> completion of 2nd Iddat period (whether they seperating or reuniting, here the witnesses are necessary, 65:2). So by the completion of 2nd Iddat period itself, the final divorce will happen. So there is no point of initiating a 'third divorce' (which is not Qur'anic). In other words, the marriage will become invalid if reunion did not happen by the end of the 2nd Iddat period.
and it will be avg 10 months, for the whole process.