With respect, please note again my contentions. I await a suitable response.
- Given God's infinite capacity, please provide clear Quranic proof that He cannot temporarily suspend / alter / interfere with the laws He himself has created as and when 'He so wills' to manifest a particular truth
Salamun alaikum,
I think this question is required a slight modification. The question should not be whether Allah is competent to temporarily suspend the laws, it should be whether Allah will ever suspend /alter /interfere. Allah is very much competent to suspend/ alter/ interfere, but Allah will not do. For instance, the taste of salt is salty, Allah could have made it taste differently. Can Allah change the taste of salt to something else? Yes of course, Allah can do it, but Allah will not do. This applies in the social world also.
“This has been Our way with Our Messengers whom We sent before thee; and thou wilt not find any change in Our way” (17:77)
“Such has been the way of God with those who passed away before, and never thou wilt find a change in the way of God.”(33:62)
“(Such has been) Allah's Way of dealing with His Servants (from the most ancient times).” (40:85)
“Such has ever been the law of God; and thou shalt not find any change in the law of God.”(48:23)
“Thus [it is]: no change wilt thou ever find in God's way; yea, no deviation wilt thou ever find in God's way!” (35: 43)
- What did God stop / withhold / arrest / prevent / refrain / suspend (mana) in 17:59 going forward that He had sent to previous communities?
- How could God stop something (17:59) He did before, if He did not alter His ways?
The reason why no miracles have been provided to the prophet, as stated in the Quran many times, was because the prophet was only a human being like us and a messenger with responsibility to deliver the message only. I will say, the explanation of “Miracles” in the above verse is only an interpretation, it is because we try to interpret the verse based on our pre-conceived notions.
Please tell me what is the “miracle” in the story of Thamud discussed in the context? People of Thamud treated Allah’s warnings with contempt and brought about punishment and immediate destruction. The purpose for sending such a warning was to strike terror into the hearts of evildoers and reclaim them to the right path. Here fear is used as a motive for reclaiming certain kinds of hard hearts. Allah could have send the message with such warnings, however, it is Allah's Mercy that he gives the disbelievers grace for a time and prevents the coming of punishments which would overwhelm them if they were put to their trial at once.
Considering your explanation of "miracles" associated with earlier people, we know that, when people asked Jesus a miracle, what Jesus himself had stated was. according to Quran,
"Fear Allah, if ye have faith." (5:12).
Also, it is to be noted that Allah mentions with contempt the habit of people requesting “miracles”;
“And those who have no knowledge say, 'Why does God not speak to us, or a Sign come to us direct?'
Likewise said those before them what was similar to their saying. Their hearts are all alike. We have certainly made the Signs plain for a people who firmly believe.” (2:118)
- Why does the Quran 'confirm' (musaddiqan) the traditional understanding of the Jewish and Christian audience at the time of the Prophet's ministry with regards portents and not challenge it?
- Why does the Quran use similar terms in the Arabic language to support the existing understanding of the Jews and Christians regarding portents?
I think we need to take into account the following things and take up the issue for further deliberations.
1. There are christian scholars/ writers who claim that rod of Moses and many biblical stories, even the story of Adam are allegorical. You can check for book “The Rod of the Almond Tree in God’s Master Plan” by Peter A. Michas , mainly from chapter 6 onwards. I will say such an analysis is interesting only, especially from a Christian point of view.
2. Then there is the issue how Quran can explain things which are having a pshychological reality to the people and I am unable to find a reason why a theological stand should have been taken in explicit terms other than metaphorically explaining the things as it is and at the same time mentioning the reality of the actual situation through many verses.
3. Another important thing is to be noted is that no where any “miracles” have been said to have been done in response to a demand for miracles. When a demand was made, as stated in the Quran, the response from Jesus was,
“fear your lord”. So please note, a "miracle" is said to have been performed when there was no request for it from people! It is strange and there is a lot to ponder over.
4. An allegorical narration might be best possible way to explain facts for people who are not familiar and present at the time and period in history. The fact that Moses requested Allah the help of Aaron for the reason that Aaron was more fluent speech and debate is itself a proof that what happened before Pharoah was more than a magical feast (it is interesting to note, in the biblical narration it is Aaron who is throwing the stick). We are actually overlooking the possiblity of an intellectual debate and consequent victory explained through an allegory of a real snake swallowing false and faked snakes. Even assuming this an allegory, the words and statements have deep and powerful meanings.
5. Quran itself testifies that it contains allegorical verses and and Allah only knows the essence of the realities which these verses represent. Also, those who make a right approach to knowledge believe in the realities but can also form an idea of what they are and can perceive their significance. (3:7) and look also (74:31)
- Why would one not accept the Quran's clear testimony, even though the Quran says it is not a book of riddles and has no crookedness?
"...qur'anan arabiyyan ghayra dhi iwajin ..." (A Quran in Arabic without any crookedness...)
Again, quranic confirmation for the existance of allegorical verses must be sufficient to answer this point. There are two types of verses. The first kind consists of those verses which have definite meaning and constitute the foundation of Allah’s Laws. The second kind are figurative and explain abstract realities metaphorically. It is unfair to drag the issue of “crookedness” into allegorical verses. Moreover, even assuming such an argument is valid, I can quote for you a number of verses a person with ordinary understading can not grasp its real meanings without indept study and analysis. I provide below a few instances;
“And We have set none but angels as Guardians of the Fire; and We have fixed their number only as a trial for Unbelievers,- in order that the People of the Book may arrive at certainty, and the Believers may increase in Faith” (74:31)
"Whomever God wills to guide, He renders his chest wide open to Submission. And whomever He wills to send astray, He renders his chest intolerant and constricted, as if he were ascending in the sky." 6:125 (We now know the beauty in the statement “as if he were ascending in the sky”)
We ourselves earlier discussed verses 2:72-73 and in yourown analysis of this verse you said; “Verses 2:72-73 often provide an array of interpretations from commentators with different theological perspectives.” ..........................” Whether an actual body was roused from death or whether there is room for a metaphorical interpretation of how God manifests truth of murder will be open to discussion. Such details do not seem to be the purpose of the Quran to expound.” My question; Can we say the above verse is a crooked verse due to lack of a direct clear meaning?
I can quote for you so many verses like the above. I am sure you yourself will be familiar with more than such verses than myself. People who use their intellect and reason will be able to grasp the real meaning (more or less) of such verses, and those who do not use their intelligence may explain such verses as "crooked". The fault is on us for not properly applying our intelligence.