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Offline Reader Questions

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Why Does the Torah Not Have any Verses Mentioning the Hereafter?
« on: November 27, 2011, 08:07:11 PM »
Salam Joseph.


Surah Ala (87), talks of the previous books like the Torah having mention of the hereafter. But the Torah doesn't talk about the hereafter. I realize the Torah has been changed but it seems surprising that if there were many verses discussing the hereafter, would they all be erased from the Torah?

Offline Joseph Islam

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Re: Why Does the Torah Not Have any Verses Mentioning the Hereafter?
« Reply #1 on: November 27, 2011, 08:08:49 PM »
Walaikum salaam.


I  mention in a related post on the QM forum that the "Tanakh's focus seems to be on how to live life within God's ordained religion, this does not imply that it is devoid of a concept of the afterlife"

The Torah also indicates clear references to support the concept of rewards and punishment in the hereafter.

For example, the Torah talks about great patriarchs being "gathered to their people". The Hebrew 'acaph' (aw-saf) means to receive and gather. This does not mean to be buried in the same location.  Not all these patriarchs were buried in the same place!

It means a spiritual gathering in the hereafter possibly amongst righteous ancestors.

KJV  Genesis 25:8
"Then Abraham gave up the ghost, and died in a good old age, an old man, and full of years; and was gathered to his people"

KJV  Deuteronomy 32:50
"And die in the mount whither thou goest up, and be gathered unto thy people; as Aaron thy brother died in mount Hor, and was gathered unto his people"

KJV  Genesis 49:33
"And when Jacob had made an end of commanding his sons, he gathered up his feet into the bed, and yielded up the ghost, and was gathered unto his people"

This concept is clearly supported by following Quranic verses:

084.007-9
Then he who is given his record in his right hand, soon will his account be taken by an easy reckoning and he will turn to his people, rejoicing!"

Those that fall out of God's grace would be 'cut off' (Hebrew: karath (kawrath)).

KJV  Genesis 17:14
"And the uncircumcised man child whose flesh of his foreskin is not circumcised, that soul shall be cut off from his people; he hath broken my covenant"

Again this is a spiritual disconnect in the hereafter. 'From his people' intimates the righteous of his people in the hereafter.

KJV  Exodus 31:14
"Ye shall keep the sabbath therefore; for it is holy unto you: every one that defileth it shall surely be put to death: for whosoever doeth any work therein, that soul shall be cut off from among his people"

Therefore I do find support for verses 87:18-19 in that there is mention of the fact that the hereafter is a better place (gathered amongst the people) and those that prefer the present life will be 'cut off' from such grace. This is further supported by 84:7-9.

I hope this helps, God willing.

Joseph.

'During times of universal deceit, telling the truth becomes a revolutionary act' 
George Orwell

Offline Saleh

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Re: Why Does the Torah Not Have any Verses Mentioning the Hereafter?
« Reply #2 on: November 30, 2011, 05:20:40 PM »
Salam Bro Joseph,

With regards to the bible, to my understanding is that the bible was sent down to Prophet Jesus in Greek? Greek is a European Language and Prophet Jesus, I believe is of the  Israelite race? Therefore, he should have spoken a semitic language, Hebrew or Aramic?

In the Quran, GOD says that every messengers that HE sent spoke language of their people.

Can you elucidate and thank you in advance.

Salam Bro

Offline Saleh

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Re: Why Does the Torah Not Have any Verses Mentioning the Hereafter?
« Reply #3 on: November 30, 2011, 05:44:49 PM »
Salam Bro Joseph,

My analization from The Quran, The Torah was never mentioned together with Prophet Moses. It is only mentioned as 'kitab' or 'suhuf'. Could it be that it is a canon of the Jewish Prophets since Prophet Jacob?

Salam Bro Joseph

Offline Joseph Islam

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Re: Why Does the Torah Not Have any Verses Mentioning the Hereafter?
« Reply #4 on: December 01, 2011, 07:59:57 AM »

Salamun Alaikum Saleh,

It is highly probable that Prophet Jesus would have been multilingual given that he grew up in a region which was not only culturally but linguistically diverse. He would have most likely been familiar with the common language of Greece and Rome (Greek and Latin), Hebrew - the sacred tongue of Judaism and also Aramaic (regional dialect).

We know that Prophet Jesus spoke Aramaic due to phrases used by him in the New Testament in Greek.

For example: we note in Mark 15:34, Jesus to say: "Eloi Eloi lama sabachthani?" "My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?". This phrase is not a Greek phrase but one in Aramaic. A similar rendering is also present in the Gospel of Matthew (27:46).

We also note that Prophet Jesus was able to speak with Pontius Pilate (John 18:28-38). It is unlikely that the Romans would have been conversant with the language of the Jews. Therefore,  it is more probable (unless a translator was present, but we have no Biblical indication of this) that the conversation may have ensued in Greek or Latin.

John 18:33
Then Pilate entered into the judgment hall again, and called Jesus, and said unto him, Art thou the King of the Jews?

John 18:34
Jesus answered him, Sayest thou this thing of thyself, or did others tell it thee of me? 

John 18:35
Pilate answered, Am I a Jew? Thine own nation and the chief priests have delivered thee unto me: what hast thou done?

John 18:36
Jesus answered, My kingdom is not of this world: if my kingdom were of this world, then would my servants fight, that I should not be delivered to the Jews: but now is my kingdom not from hence. 

John 18:37
Pilate therefore said unto him, Art thou a king then? Jesus answered, Thou sayest that I am a king. To this end was I born, and for this cause came I into the world, that I should bear witness unto the truth. Every one that is of the truth heareth my voice.

[King James Version]

With your second question regarding the Torah and Prophet Moses, there are many verses which make it absolutely clear that it could have only been the Torah that was revealed to Prophet Moses. Clearly the Jews were judged by the Torah (5:43), a scripture that was revealed to them (5:44) and examples within the Torah (Life for Life, eye for an eye etc) can be directly matched with the Torah given to Moses (5:45). [See Deuteronomy 19:21; Exodus 21:23-25 and Leviticus 24:18-20]. We also know that Prophet Moses was given scripture (6:91; 17:2).

I am not sure if you are looking for one specific verse.

As I am sure you will appreciate, viewing Quranic verses in isolation is not an approach substantiated by the Quran.  Different parts of the scripture explain each other and must be studied as a collective whole.
 
039:023 (part)
"God has revealed the most beautiful message in the form of a Book consistent with itself yet repeating (its teaching in various aspects)..."

I hope this helps,

Regards,
Joseph.


'During times of universal deceit, telling the truth becomes a revolutionary act' 
George Orwell

Offline Saleh

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Re: Why Does the Torah Not Have any Verses Mentioning the Hereafter?
« Reply #5 on: December 01, 2011, 12:07:58 PM »
Waalaikumussalam Bro Joseph,

Actually there is one verse, 6:89 - [These were the people to whom We gave The Book and The Authority and Prophethood..........]

The verses before this verse, that is, verses 83 to 86, mentioned the name of 18 Prophets.

My humble opinion.

Jazakallahu khair