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General Discussions / Re: Feedback on Q&A: Who named us muslim
« on: January 10, 2014, 05:20:27 AM »
w/salaam KZ,
Thanks for the reply.
Re: 1)
My basis is that if Abraham coined the name "Muslim" did he invent it or use an existing word in whatever his language was?
If one answers invented it, then it is a meaningless invented word/name, e.g. if he then met someone and said "I'm a Muslim" the other person would have no idea what "Muslim" meant.
But brother Joseph clarified his view, that in his Abraham-naming theory, whatever the equivalent was would have been used in his language, and similarly whatever the equivalent was in Aramaic/Hebrew/Greek/etc would have been used.
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Let me clarify what I meant by omnipresent-like attribute. My quote below:
In the Abraham-naming theory, it is as follows:
1) Abraham named you (i.e. followers of this) al muslimeen from before
AND
2) Abraham named you al muslimeen in this (creed/millat)
How do explain parts 1 and 2? i.e. this millat is the same as Abraham's so why does it differentiate? In case my point is still not clear one simply needs to answer how Abraham named us from before AND how Abraham named us in this millat.
If one can explain that without giving Abraham omnipresent-like attribute, I'd welcome an explanation.
Thanks for the reply.
1. I fail to see why the word Muslim is rendered as a meaningless title if Prophet Ibrahim is the one suggesting it? What is your basis for that?
2. As to the usage by the Prophet Ibrahim, then that would most certainly would have been by whatever tongue Prophet Ibrahim spoke.
3. S-L-M is an old Semitic root - it predates Arabic and Hebrew. It is perfectly possible they used the same root!QuoteAlmost seems to give Abraham omnipresence-like attribute.
How? What? For choosing a name/title? It is perfectly possible he had that authority given to him by the Almighty. We, Sufi/Sunni believe that the Prophet Muhammad [Peace Be Upon Him] had legislative and other powers granted by Allah, and that in no way would give the Prophet any omnipresence-like attribute.
Re: 1)
My basis is that if Abraham coined the name "Muslim" did he invent it or use an existing word in whatever his language was?
If one answers invented it, then it is a meaningless invented word/name, e.g. if he then met someone and said "I'm a Muslim" the other person would have no idea what "Muslim" meant.
But brother Joseph clarified his view, that in his Abraham-naming theory, whatever the equivalent was would have been used in his language, and similarly whatever the equivalent was in Aramaic/Hebrew/Greek/etc would have been used.
###
Let me clarify what I meant by omnipresent-like attribute. My quote below:
Quote
Also, in such a theory, the wording seems awkward:
"...he (Abraham) named you al muslimeen from before AND in this (millat)..."
i.e.
Abraham named you (i.e. followers of this) al muslimeen from before AND Abraham named you al muslimeen in this creed/millat
Almost seems to give Abraham omnipresence-like attribute. And not to mention "this millat/creed" was the same as before, so why differentiate then and now.
In the Abraham-naming theory, it is as follows:
1) Abraham named you (i.e. followers of this) al muslimeen from before
AND
2) Abraham named you al muslimeen in this (creed/millat)
How do explain parts 1 and 2? i.e. this millat is the same as Abraham's so why does it differentiate? In case my point is still not clear one simply needs to answer how Abraham named us from before AND how Abraham named us in this millat.
If one can explain that without giving Abraham omnipresent-like attribute, I'd welcome an explanation.