Salaam everyone my name is Hassan,
Though this is my first post on this forum I am no stranger to the following site (
http://quransmessage.com/articles/articles%20FM3.htm) which I have, and continue to, visit occasionally.
Firstly, I would like to briefly commend Brother Joseph Islam on the many articles he’s written on his main site (
http://quransmessage.com/articles/articles%20FM3.htm). The knowledge, understanding and wisdom of the Quran he displays on all his articles is truly amazing; as is the way/style he conducts himself in his many debates with respected individuals. May Allah increase you (and all of us) in knowledge and understanding of the Quran; and may your site become accessible to my of our dear Muslim brothers/sister whom I believe could really benefit from it. I could go on and on commending the brother but I believe the readers get the point.
Now to the intent of my post:
An individual whom I was debating regarding what is meant by the term “inherently apparent” in (i.e. what a woman can publicly display) put forth the following argument which I would like the respected members on this forum (including, if possible, brother Joseph Islam) to critique it.
His argument goes as follows:
The Quran is not an ambiguous book; what is ambiguous in one verse(s) is expounded on/made clear in other verse(s). One verse in the Quran which, by itself, seems/sounds ambiguous is the following verse in which Allah instructs women (in dressing modestly) to not reveal anything “EXCEPT WHAT IS ‘INHERENTLY APPEARENT’”:
"And tell the believing women to lower their gaze and to guard their private parts, and not to reveal any of their ‘zinatahhunna’ (beauty spots) EXCEPT WHAT IS NORMAL/INHERENTLY APPARENT…(24;31).
In the above verse (which is a sub-verse of a much longer verse) when women are being told/commanded to reveal nothing ‘except what is normally/inherently apparent’ one is not given/told what is meant by ‘normally/inherently apparent’, thus leaving one perplexed. But, as said before, ambiguous verse(s) are expounded on/made clear in other verse(s). So, what is meant by ‘normally/inherently apparent’ in verse 24:31 (which itself leaves it unclear) is expounded on/made clear in the following verse which orders Muslims what to do before salat (prayer) and how to do it:
"O you who believe, when you rise to observe the Salat, you shall wash your faces and your arms to the elbows, and wipe your heads and your feet to the ankles." (Quran 5:6)
The connection between the above verse –verse 5:6 (which instructs Muslims what they should do before salat/prayer and how they should do it) and verse 24:31 (which instructs women to dress modestly and reveal nothing except what is normally/inherently apparent) is that the parts which Allah instructs us to wash before every prayer (face; arms: up to the elbow; head: hair included; feet: up to the ankles) must fall under the category of “normally/inherently apparent’. Because (his argument goes) wudu/ablution is done for physical (as well as spiritual) cleanness and the parts which are most exposed to the elements (such as the face, arms, head, and feet) are the parts which we are instructed to clean before salat/prayer. But if the head/face, arms, and feet of a woman is to be covered then what is/would be the point of instructing them to clean those parts constantly (head face, arms, and feet) if they are always (to be) covered and thus never exposed to the elements. Thus, those parts which Allah instructs us (women as well as men) to clean before prayer are the same parts which is/are referred to as ‘inherently/normally apparent’ in verse 24:31 and which women (as well as men) are free to reveal.
Again I would like the respected members of this forum to critique said brothers’ argument.
Peace to all.