Wa alaikum assalam Optimist.
You know that you and I have travelled this road before and I was hoping not to keep revisiting what is apparent by now (given our numerous discourses on this forum) a theological impasse.
However, I have taken the liberty to share some comments to your response in
redI believe the question why Allah did not refute the general Christian belief regarding the birth of Jesus is rather unnecessary. There could be different reasons (1) To make a strong objection for an issue which is not related the main teachings of Islam is not required and rather unnecessary; (2) There is possibility of people unnecessarily focusing on unimportant issues losing their focus on the main issues; (3) Such strong objection can make some people not to even consider the truthfulness of the teachings of the Quran (4) Using such terms and expressions susuptible for different interpretation in such cases, (i) it can attract people towards Islam to study and evaluate its teachings (ii) it is possible for people who apply further thought and contemplation to come to the correct understanding of the verses at a later stage (even if it does not happen, it is not going to affect their faith). I think this is one of the reasons why Quran is so amazing. I can tell you couple of such examples from Quran itself. With respect, you have once again not provided one convincing reason to the fundamental question asked.
Why does the Quran confirm the Bible narratives and the Christian belief verbatim? I find your reasons most implausible, unduly contentious and without warrant.
Please allow me to share the verses again for the benefit of other readers. Please note these are
explicit verses that are being confirmed.Luke 1 (part) (KJV) 30 And the angel said unto her, Fear not, Mary: for thou hast found favour with God.
34 "Then said Mary unto the angel, How shall this be, seeing I know not a man?
35 And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee..." (part)
The Quran makes absolutely no attempt to challenge the mainstay Christian understanding resonating the same sentiments verbatim.
Quran Surah 19 19. He said: "I am only a Messenger from your Lord, that I may bestow upon you a righteous son."
20. She said: "How can I have a son, when no man has touched me, nor am I unchaste?"
21. He said: "So (it will be), your Lord said: 'That is easy for Me: And so that We will make him a sign to mankind and a mercy from Us and it is a matter decreed."
1. You and I believe in the evolution theory based our own deductions from different verses of the Quran. However you will agree with me there are several verses in the Quran, which if we take into account in literal sense, they would ’support’ creation story. My question: Why Quran did not strongly refute the Christian and the general belief in explicit terms but used such terms and expression susuptible to be interpreted to confirm creation theory? Also the same question in a different way. Why Quran did not use such terms and expressions which can completely confirm without any doubt the theory of evolution? With respect dear brother, it is my view that asking questions which are not relevant to the discussion with a view to respond to a fundamental question is not only one of the weakest forms of rebutting an argument, it also does little to further strong academic discussion. We have gone through this exercise many times on this forum dear brother and I really would not like to repeat this.
The position the Quran takes with evolution where it recognises it as a 'process' that God used has little to do with the
confirmation verbatim of the previous scriptures and the mainstay beliefs of those that follow them and were present at the time of the Prophet. At times, such as in the case of Prophet Jesus's virgin birth,
the Quran confirms the Biblical scriptures and mainstay beliefs of the followers of previous scriptures and in others, it elucidates or contends with it. I presented
two clear scriptural passages which are almost verbatim and with respect, you have not provided any convincing evidence against it.
Furthermore, I do not refute the idea of 'creationism' which I understand to mean the religious belief that the Universe is a direct consequence of the creation of a supernatural entity. Evolution is simply a process used by the Almighty Creator.
1. The traditional translators normally translate verse 19:20 to mean as Mary saying, "How can I have a boy while no man has touched me and I have not been unchaste?" Actually the translation “unchaste” is not the proper translation in the context. Mary is actually saying that she has been leading a pious life without allowing anyone to touch her and that she is living like a nun, and the law is that a nun should never marry and she has not broken that law. Dear brother, where does the Quran say that? With respect, you have simply passed on a
personal interpolation and presented it as a Quranic narrative. With respect, this is wholly unacceptable. The idea of renouncing the world including intimacy is even rebuked in the Quran with the issue of monasticism (57:27). You have basically accepted a Christian tradition and imposed it on the Quranic narrative. Why do you accept isolated Biblical traditions and then reject
clear verses from the Bible which are confirmed by the Quran? This would arguably be a most unbefitting an approach for any sincere student of the Quran.
The basic meaning of the root word, Beh, ghain, yeh is to exceed the limit. Bagha alaih is to commit excess against or on someone: to oppress someone: to be high handed against somebody: and be jealous of someone. The word has come in relation to committing excesses at different places in Quran, for instance, in verse 2:173, after discussing ‘haram and halal’ in edibles it says: fama-niz tarro ghaira baghin wala a’adin fala isma alaihi in the sense of transgressing the due limit.. It is true in verse 24:33 the word alibgha-o is used for illegal fornication which is equal to transgressing the limit, however, in the context of the verse 19:20 Mary is saying that she has no intention to break the law (and not particularly for fornication) and therefore there is no question of her mating with anyone. This was during the time when Mary was living a celibate life as a nun, however, when she came to know of the teachings of God, she left the life of a nun and started living a normal life with the child.With respect, you have committed a fundamental mistake which sadly leaves your methodology academically exposed. Arabic words have a context. This is a fundamental concern of mine with those such as your kind self that approach the Quran by subjecting a spoken language to simply dictionaries and root word analysis.
The Arabic word
'baghiy' in verse 19:20 has been used in a certain context and in its
noun form which has a particular understanding.
Please note how the same word is used only a few verses later.
019.027-28 "Then she came to her people with him, carrying him (with her). They said: O Mary! surely you have done a strange thing. O sister of Aaron! Your father was not a wicked man nor was your mother unchaste (baghiy)" Also note how the
noun 'bigha' is used in verse 24:33 to imply fornication or prostitution.
If according to you,
'baghiy' in this context means a transgression such as participating in intimacy when one has renounced the world, then are you seriously suggesting that based on the above verse Mary's mother also never transgressed the boundaries of intimacy as she was a nun? Then how did Mary's mother conceive Mary?
This was during the time when Mary was living a celibate life as a nun, however, when she came to know of the teachings of God, she left the life of a nun and started living a normal life with the child.Again, where are you acquiring these interpolations from? Is it Biblical tradition? If so, then with utmost respect brother Optimist, this is a very contradictory approach. You seem to pick and choose from what you deem fit from the Bible but when the
Quran confirms a mainstay belief of the Christians almost verbatim, you reject it? This is most unpersuasive and unacceptable.
Sadly, you have continued this approach throughout your other 5 points which makes it really tedious for me to respond and therefore I have declined commentary.
It is clear from our numerous often exhausting discussions on this forum which have in the main left us with a theological impasse that we do not see eye to eye on the matter of God's intervention and the way you interpret many literal passages metonymically.
With respect, hitherto you have not provided me with any convincing arguments for your position. When pressed, I have respectfully found that you have consistently resorted to formulating questions of your own which have little to with addressing the central contention.
Please let us agree to disagree and leave it to the readers to decide.
This will remain a respectful academic contention between us.
No hard feelings intended
Regards,
Joseph