Wa alaikum assalam Nura,
Please see my responses to your questions in
redYou also said that the Quran asks the people of the book to consider it and accept it as truth. From your reply to my question, I understood that we are to believe that aspects of truth is present in the Bible but we are not to use it for extracting and formulating religious law. You also said that the Bible was revealed as a source of law for the children of Israel.
1. But is the Bible (only) supposed to remain the source of law for the children of Israel till the day of reckoning even after the Quran is revealed?At no place does the Quran assert
‘as a condition of faith’ that the Children of Israel / People of the Book should
abandon their laws that have been revealed to them.
[1]Rather, the Quran asserts:
"Say: "O People of the Book! you have no ground to stand upon unless you firmly stand by (Arabic: Tuqimu) the Torah, the Gospel, and all the revelation that has come to you from your Lord." (5:68)
"But why do they come to you for decision, when they have (their own) Torah before them? therein is the (plain) command of God; yet even after that, they would turn away. For they are not People of Faith." (5.43)
The Jews are being told to judge from what has been revealed to them (Torah) and if they don't, they are 'Kaffirs' (Disbelievers)
"It was We who revealed the Torah (to Moses): therein (Arabic: Fi-ha) was guidance and light. By its standard have been judged the Jews, by the prophets who bowed (as in Islam) to God's will, by the rabbis and the scholars (Arabic: Ahbaru) : for to them was entrusted the protection of God's book, and they were witnesses to it: therefore do not fear mankind, but fear Me, and sell not my verses (Arabic: Ayati) for a miserable price. If any fails to judge by (the light of) what God has revealed, they are Unbelievers (Arabic: Kaffiruna)" (5:44)
The Quran also acknowledges that different laws were revealed for different communities which they must submit to in truth.
"...To each among you have We prescribed a law (Arabic: Shir-atan) and an open way (Arabic: waminhajan). If God had so willed, He would have made you a single people, but (His plan is) to test you in what He has given you: so strive as in a race in all virtues. The goal of you all is to God; it is He that will show you the truth of the matters in which ye dispute” - 5.48 (part)
Not only is their food permissible to be eaten, the Quran also sanctions marriage with the People of the Book.
HOWEVER (IMPORTANT)We must be clear what the Quran defines as 'righteous' People of the Book. This is arguably not a reference to those of the People of the Book that have transgressed boundaries into idolatry by assigning partners with God and commit unrighteous deeds. This is a reference to religiously 'righteous' people of the Book.
Please see article
[2] below which will elaborate this point, God willing.
Like many Muslims today, there are many from the People of the Book that arguably do not follow their scriptures in earnest but have rather taken other sources for religious guidance.
If the Quran is followed along with its laws then that is done out of choice not because the Quran explicitly states the People of the Book to abandon their scriptures.
2. The Quran is revealed as a message for all of Alaameen, doesn't that include people of the book?Please note the meaning of 'Alameen' from a Quran's perspective which is dependant on context. Please see related article
[3] below.
There are those from the People of the Book that accept the 'truth' of the Quran as a revelation from God. If they followed the guidance of the Quran, they would be referred back to their own scriptures with
discernment. The Quran would also provide them a tool to challenge those notions that have crept into their beliefs and practices which have no warrant. Following the Quran does not necessarily equate with abandoning the laws of say the Torah.
It is only the believers that are required to follows the laws of the Quran alone.3. if not, then how is the Quran a guidance for all of Alameen?Please see response above.
4. If a person( christian or jew) from the people of the book accepts the Quran as truth, can he/she then still follow only the laws present in the Bible? or in this case should he/she follow both the laws in the Quran and the Bible ( Bible + Quran)? Please see my response to your question 2 above. The Quran presents a tool for
'discernment' and for the people of the Book it commands them to
what is right and forbids them from what is wrong in their beliefs and practices. Please see the verse below:
007.157 "Those who follow the messenger (Arabic: Tabiuna RasulAllah), the gentile prophet (Arabic: Nabiya Ummiya), whom they find mentioned in their own (scriptures) in the Torah and the Gospel;- for he commands them to what is right and forbids from what is wrong (Arabic: munkar); he allows them as lawful what is good (and pure) and prohibits them from what is bad (and impure) (Arabic: Khabaitha); He relieves from them their burdens and from the fetters which were upon them. So it is those who believe in him, honour him, help him, and follow the light which is sent down with him,- it is they who will prosper."5. is it enough for them to just believe in the veracity of the message of the Quran and follow only the Bible just like we are asked to recognize truth in the Bible but follow the laws in the Quran?There are aspects of the Bible that the Quran confirms. It also challenges theology which has become
'read into' the Bible without warrant. If they followed the Quran as Divine guidance, they would be able to find a tool to discern their beliefs and follow their own scriptures
more closely as they were intended to be followed.I read your very informative article on riba. Your approach is different than traditionalista, you rightly consider the nature of paper money and say that if the amount of interest charged is equal to the time dependant increase in the certain amount of money then its ok.This is only on the premise that one is entitled to
recover their principle amount. This does
not ipso facto make the concept of charging 'riba' correct. This respectfully was the intent of the article.
Please find below a relevant quote from the article which dealt specifically with savings held in bank accounts.
"However, the creditor (who deposits their savings) is entitled to receive their principle amount back. As already mentioned, in today's economy, currency seldom holds the same value over a period of time. Therefore, it can be argued that any interest payment that covers the rate of inflation is permissible as this allows for the creditors principle amount to be returned." [4]But calculating such a rate of interest that would yield the time dependent increased amount of money is not possible. As an economics student i can tell this because we are taught that due to the presence of black markets, impossibility of accruing perfect information regarding monetary transactions and demand and supply of money in an economy it is impossible to calculate such an interest rate. So non islamic banks cant charge that rate. So they charge a rate that they fix basing on assumptions and speculative calculations.As I have respectfully shared, my article does not sanction 'interest / riba' but in the context of your question, only argues for
the return of the principle amount.
6. Do you think then working in such institutions is haram and so is keeping money in their savings accounts? can I work in a bank and have a savings account in traditional banks? As I have argued in another post
[5] if the primary purpose of an institution is to deal / trade in matters forbidden such as 'riba', then facilitating that trade in any manner is arguably
not in the spirit of Islam. With regards savings accounts and as I have already reiterated, I have argued the return of one's capital amount taking into account monetary inflation.
In my country, after the death of a person, people gather on the third day( called milad) and the 40 th day (called challisa) to recite the quran, some prayers, surah yaseen 40 times etc for the peace of the soul of the dead person.
7. is this practice sanctioned by the quran?The Quran provides a tool, a criterion to judge. There is no warrant to sanction these practices
'in the name of religion'. If they are followed or one participates in them, they are done simply as a cultural practice. Rather than blind rituals, believers would be better advised to make use of these gatherings to discuss the Quranic narratives, how to implement them into our lives and to understand what they are reciting rather than blind recitation. Offering prayers for the dead however, is a practice generally recognised by the Quran.
[6]8. how can the recitation of these help the dead person? are doing these things at all quranic or just a traditional practice not sanctioned by the quran?Please see response above. These are merely traditional practices. A recitation of the Quran can only help the living
not the dead. The dead have moved on and the accounts of their deeds are closed and are with their Lord for judgement.
9.and also women are not allowed to accompany the body to the burial site. this is thought to be forbidden? There is no Quranic warrant to forbid this
in the name of religion. However, it may be deemed culturally acceptable in certain communities to discourage women for many reasons including the heightened state of emotion of such an event and to address logistics etc. However, this is
not a Quranic matter. It is simply a cultural one.
10.does the quran forbid women from attending janaza prayers and going to the burial site?Please see the response above.
11.also people (men and women) in my country visit the grave and read surahs for the peace of the dead person's soul. how quranic is this practice?This is not a 'Quranic matter'. Arguably, people should visit graves more importantly with a view so that they can think of their own transient journey on earth. If they read prayers or the Quran with meaning and intent, then they can only extract guidance from it. However, if the intent is to benefit the dead then such a thought has no Quranic warrant.
The Quran does not intend to abandon traditions. However, many traditions are actioned in the 'name of religion' which has no warrant. As I shared on a post:
"Assess the traditions that have reached you in whatever culture you live in. Do not simply dismiss them but sharpen the ability to discern. Those traditions of your culture that fall within the spirit and guidance of the Quran, be free to embrace it. Those that do not, respectfully leave it aside or curtail your involvement in it." [7]I hope that helps, God willing.
Regards,
Joseph.
REFERENCES:[1] PEOPLE OF THE BOOK (JEWS & CHRISTIANS)http://quransmessage.com/articles/people%20of%20the%20book%20FM3.htm[2] MARRIAGE WITH THE PEOPLE OF THE BOOKhttp://quransmessage.com/articles/marriage%20with%20people%20of%20the%20book%20FM3.htm[3] UNDERSTANDING THE QURANIC TERM 'ALAMEEN'http://quransmessage.com/articles/alameen%20FM3.htm[4] RIBAhttp://quransmessage.com/articles/riba%20FM3.htm[5] QM Forum Post: http://quransmessage.com/forum/index.php?topic=369.msg1111#msg1111[6] PRAYING 'FOR' THE DEAD IS DIFFERENT FROM PRAYING 'THROUGH' THE DEADhttp://quransmessage.com/articles/praying%20for%20and%20praying%20through%20FM3.htm[7] MY HUMBLE ADVICEhttps://www.facebook.com/joseph.a.islam/posts/213495468787588