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peace m114,
I only saw your questions just now. You bring up some interesting points. I will need to ponder over this and study it more to see how it comes together.
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Q&As with Joseph Islam - Information Only / Re: Divorce
« Last post by Wakas on February 18, 2024, 05:53:39 PM »
peace Hajira,

Please see:
http://www.quran434.com/wife-beating-islam.html
(it discusses divorce in Quran in detail)

Quote
Can women initiate divorce according to Quran?

Quotes from my posts on free-minds:

Quote
To my knowledge, the husband is the one who initiates divorce/talaq, however the wife can release herself from the marriage but it is not called talaq explicitly in Quran. In practice the end result is the same. It could be considered nomenclature for the time.

Quote
If a woman wanted divorce she can ask her husband to divorce her, but if the husband does not divorce her, she can inform the authority herself and request a release from marriage. Whilst different words are used the procedure is actually the same for both men/women, as the husband would also have to notify the authority if he wished to divorce.
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Q&As with Joseph Islam - Information Only / Re: Divorce
« Last post by optimist on January 20, 2024, 02:41:24 AM »
The Quran has ordained equal rights and obligations for a husband and a wife. Let us look what Quran instructs. It says: (4:35) "If you fear a breach between them (the couple), the concerned authority should constitute a board of arbitration consisting of two members, one from his family and the other from hers. Thus if the husband and the wife make up their minds for reconciliation, the two arbiters should attempt to bring them close to each other. The Divine Law shall bring about reconciliation because the law is based on Allah's Knowledge, Who is acquainted with all things."

Here the term includes both man and woman, i.e, the complainant may be the man or the woman; in both cases it is the duty of society to appoint an arbitration board.

If the woman feels an excess or disinclination from her husband, even then they try to patch up their differences amongst themselves or ask for a board of arbitration to be appointed. Thus it said: (4:128) "And if a woman fears ill-usage from her husband or desertion, no blame is on them if they effect a reconciliation between them for amicable settlement is always good", (or otherwise ask for the appointment of a board of arbitration).

In Surah 'Al-Mujaadilah' (58th Chapter of the Quran) it is said: (58:1)

"Allah has indeed heard the woman who was disputing with you concerning her husband, and complaining to Allah (about the maltreatment she was receiving at the hands of her husband) and Allah was hearing the contentions of both of you. Surely Allah hears and sees (all things)."

This also makes it clear that a woman can take her case to a court of law and has full right to apply for divorce; however, the first priority of the court of arbitration shall be to bring about reconciliation between them.
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General Discussions / Re: Ishmael prophet and messenger
« Last post by Wakas on December 18, 2023, 05:16:17 PM »
For these kinds of questions you may find a word search or topical index resource helpful, e.g.

From:
https://www.studyquran.org/

https://www.studyquran.org/TopicsIndex.htm
https://www.studyquran.org/WordSearch.htm

You can then read every occurrence of "Ishmael" for example. In this case, quote:

Ishmael, 2:136, 2:140, 3:84, 4:163, 6:86, 14:39, 21:85, 37:102-109, 38:48
and Hagar, 2:158


Note: since the references are taken from a Traditional Islam website there may be some wording issues, but the actual verse references should be accurate.
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General Discussions / Re: Ishmael prophet and messenger
« Last post by Student on December 17, 2023, 01:01:08 PM »
walekum salaam,

No, not that I know from my study of the Quran.
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General Discussions / Does Sura 4:43 adress men only?
« Last post by Omar bin Mario on December 14, 2023, 03:38:17 AM »
Assalamu Alaykum, I've a question about the sura 4:43.

It appears to me that the sura is divided in 2 parts:


 the first part is generic and adress men and women

O you who believe! Approach not As-Salat (the prayer) when you are in a drunken state until you know (the meaning) of what you utter, nor when you are in a state of Janaba, (i.e. in a state of sexual impurity and have not yet taken a bath) except when travelling on the road (without enough water, or just passing through a mosque), till you wash your whole body


And the second part adress only men or I'm mistaken?

And if you are ill, or on a journey, or one of you comes after answering the call of nature, or you have been in contact with women (by sexual relations) and you find no water, perform Tayammum with clean earth and rub therewith your faces and hands (Tayammum). Truly, Allah is Ever Oft-Pardoning, Oft-Forgiving.

In the second part, it looks like if the order to perform tayammum in case of sexual relationship is directed to men only.

Could you please help me understand it?
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Assalamualaikum,

It does appear from the Quran that another messenger can appear and that is a true possibility.
However, my only doubt is because of this hadith which is shown in in sunnah.com- a site of Hadith compilations which show the characteristics of a certain Hadith i.e. da-'if or sahih, etc.

In particular, this hadith casts doubts on the possibility that there will even be another messenger. As hadith is our most credible source after Quran we cannot refute it at all.
This is the hadith 

Anas bin Malik narrated:
"The Messenger of Allah (s.a.w) said: 'Indeed Messenger-ship and Prophethood have been terminated, so there shall be no Messenger after me, nor a Prophet.'" He(Anas) said:"The people were concerned about that, so he (s.a.w) said: 'But there will be Mubash-shirat.' So they said: 'O Messenger of Allah! What is Mubash-shirat?' He said: 'The Muslim's dreams, for it is a portion of the portions of Prophethood.'"
حَدَّثَنَا الْحَسَنُ بْنُ مُحَمَّدٍ الزَّعْفَرَانِيُّ، حَدَّثَنَا عَفَّانُ بْنُ مُسْلِمٍ، حَدَّثَنَا عَبْدُ الْوَاحِدِ يَعْنِي ابْنَ زِيَادٍ، حَدَّثَنَا الْمُخْتَارُ بْنُ فُلْفُلٍ، حَدَّثَنَا أَنَسُ بْنُ مَالِكٍ، قَالَ قَالَ رَسُولُ اللَّهِ صلى الله عليه وسلم ‏"‏ إِنَّ الرِّسَالَةَ وَالنُّبُوَّةَ قَدِ انْقَطَعَتْ فَلاَ رَسُولَ بَعْدِي وَلاَ نَبِيَّ ‏"‏ ‏.‏ قَالَ فَشَقَّ ذَلِكَ عَلَى النَّاسِ فَقَالَ ‏"‏ لَكِنِ الْمُبَشِّرَاتُ ‏"‏ ‏.‏ قَالُوا يَا رَسُولَ اللَّهِ وَمَا الْمُبَشِّرَاتُ قَالَ ‏"‏ رُؤْيَا الْمُسْلِمِ وَهِيَ جُزْءٌ مِنْ أَجْزَاءِ النُّبُوَّةِ ‏"‏ ‏.‏ وَفِي الْبَابِ عَنْ أَبِي هُرَيْرَةَ وَحُذَيْفَةَ بْنِ أَسِيدٍ وَابْنِ عَبَّاسٍ وَأُمِّ كُرْزٍ ‏.‏ قَالَ هَذَا حَدِيثٌ حَسَنٌ صَحِيحٌ غَرِيبٌ مِنْ هَذَا الْوَجْهِ مِنْ حَدِيثِ الْمُخْتَارِ بْنِ فُلْفُلٍ ‏.‏
Grade:    Sahih (Darussalam)      
Reference    : Jami` at-Tirmidhi 2272
In-book reference    : Book 34, Hadith 3
English translation    : Vol. 4, Book 8, Hadith 2272


Prophet Muhammad is stated to have implied the future coming of messengers after his coming has ceased. This hadith is also said to be sahih which makes the statement in the hadith even more clear. 

I'm confused as to whether there are certain subtleties in the language of Arabic that are not captured well by an English translation and therefore the meaning may change.
Joseph, can you please shed some light on this and anyone else who feels they can share something useful regarding this matter can also contribute?
 
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Assalamu Alaykum

Inshallah everyone is doing well.  I have a question for Brother Joseph Islam or anyone else who knows the answer, regarding Surah 10 Ayah 38-39.   This is in regards to brother Joseph's article "Produce a Surah like it" :

http://quransmessage.com/articles/produce%20a%20surah%20FM3.htm

In the article, he mentions that :

Quote
As is clear from the above verse, the reason that the challenge could never be met was not because the language of the Quran was far too superior for the them to emulate but because the 'bi'ilmihi walama yatihiim tawiluh' (knowledge of its interpretation) had not yet been completed nor could they yet encompass it's knowledge (bima lam yuhitu bi'ilmihi).


If possible, please provide more clarification on how the lack of knowledge of the interpretation of the Quran or the lack of being able to encompass the knowledge of the Quran, lead the Pagan Arabs to fail at meeting the challenge of the Quran?   What is the ayah referring to when it mentions "knowledge of the interpretation of the Quran and being able to encompass its knowledge"?

Do we have enough knowledge of the interpretation of the Quran today and are we able to encompass its knowledge today so the Quranic challenge can be met?   If not, doesn't that imply that the Quran is a miracle?


Thank you

May Allah Bless you all Insha Allah


*Source: 'Quran with Lughat' - free app for Android & iPhones*

بَلْ كَذَّبُوْا بِمَا لَمْ يُحِيْطُوْا بِعِلْمِهٖ وَلَمَّا يَاْتِهِمْ تَاْوِيْلُهٗ ۭ كَذٰلِكَ كَذَّبَ الَّذِيْنَ مِنْ قَبْلِهِمْ فَانْظُرْ كَيْفَ كَانَ عَاقِبَةُ الظّٰلِمِيْنَ(سورة يونس , آیت 39)

In principle, the contents of the Quran may be understood by the following means:-
1. Through human knowledge reaching such a point of advancement that it can comprehend its contents;
2. Through the results produced by a system based upon Quranic laws and values; and
3. Through historical evidence showing what kind of results were produced by various systems in the past.)
 These people do not resort to any of the above means but still go on discrediting the Quran. It is simply Zulm. If they were to apply any of the above means it is possible that at least some of them may come to believe. The rest will be those who are bent upon creating Fas’ad.
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Assalamu 3alykum brothers and sisters

Thank you Munir for your input it was nice to read your response.

To understand the verses in question we must look at them from the eyes of the people who were receiving them in the time of the prophet Muhammad(pbuh).

It's clear from the Quran that the Scripture was not sent to the Arabs all at once. It was NOT brought to them as a complete scripture in one shot.

25:32 And those who disbelieve say: Why is the Qur'an not revealed unto him all at once? (It is revealed) thus that We may strengthen thy heart therewith; and We have arranged it in right order.

17:106 And (it is) a Qur'an that We have divided, that thou mayst recite it unto mankind at intervals, and We have revealed it by (successive) revelation.

Taking this in consideration and putting yourself in the time the Quran was being revealed it's seems quite possible that since the people were accusing the prophet of forging the chapters he was narrating and also doubting they are from God, then it makes complete sense that God is challenging them to produce a chapter like the one being revealed if they were telling the truth. But they could never of done so because only God knows what the completion of the Quran is going to be and the whole interpretation of the verses that were already revealed to them.

So what was basically being told to them in my humble opinion and from what I understand brother Joseph is saying is that God was asking them to go ahead and complete the rest of the Quran so to speak or produce a surah or ten surahs like the ones they already received. But they could not produce it/them because they could not make it a complete sealed revelation that would answer and interpret what was already revealed to them.

So this challenge seems to only be applicable to those living in the same time as the prophet.

Regarding brother Munirs comment on verse 3:7.

Quote
And it is also said, that everyone will not understand some verses except those who are firmly grounded in knowledge (3:7).

The verse does not state that those firmly grounded in knowledge will understand all the verses or the Mutashabih verses. Quite the opposite. The best reading of this verse would be to have a break in the verse where God says, ..."none knows its explanation(full comprehension) except God. And those who are firmly grounded in knowledge say: we believe therein, the whole is from our Lord...."

This way it would be kinda problematic if read otherwise.

What the verse is stating is that no one knows the Qurans full interpretation except God.

Those firmly grounded with knowledge believe that only God knows its full interpretation and they steer away from interpreting the 'mutashabiha' (unclear) verses.

God has made it clear in that verse that those who have a ailment in the hearts who pursue the unclear verses. So the verse makes it clear that one should steer away from trying to pursue those that are unclear. That one does not try to interpret verses that knowledge of them has not reached us. Some will also remain known only to the Creator of the Universe.

We should read them same as we read all of the rest but we have to be content that there full encompassing knowledge will not be known to us. One example would possibly be verses that illustrate the Day of Judgement. We ready them with our worldly view but to understand them and interpret them to make a bigger picture than what is already told would go against the verse.

Another example which might come to pass to the people who witness that day would be verses about Gog and Magog. As you might already know the verses detail them as intended. But go to many Islamic scholars and they will tell you many stories about them that are not detailed in the Quran. Have they crossed the boundaries of this verse?

Also you are correct there is two types of verses in the Quran. Muhkam and Mutashabih. The Quran makes it clear in the same verse that the foundation, mother, or majority of the Quran are clear and understanding to the readers/community to derive laws and rulings and use as a complete guide. The rest would be unclear.

Those who are firmly grounded in knowledge believe all of the Quran is from God whether they comprehend the full knowledge or not they believe in the entirety of it.

You also said
Quote
With the advance of time knowledge advances and the meaning of mutashabih verses becomes more clear, or we can say, we get different ways to understand the meaning of the verses. So, understanding Quran is a a continuous process. And this could be a miracle. Because no other book is like this type.

I agree. This may be possible. It's clear that there is verses in the Quran that illustrate a period that will come to humans that is called the Hour. The Quran speaks about this in many different ways. It could be argued that when the time comes to pass the verses would become more clear but also arguably too late for anyone to believe as well.

Hope that helps Insha'Allah

Salam
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Salam Brother

Trying to present my take on this matter.

I think that to understand all the verses of the Quran is near to impossible. And it is also said, that everyone will not understand some verses except those who are firmly grounded in knowledge (3:7).
 
There are two types of verses in the Quran. Muhkam which is very clear and mutashabih, which need pondering over (tadabbur) to understand. With the advance of time knowledge advances and the meaning of mutashabih verses becomes more clear, or we can say, we get different ways to understand the meaning of the verses. So, understanding Quran is a a continuous process. And this could be a miracle. Because no other book is like this type.

To understand something we must at first be seriously involved with the matter. If one try then may be Allah will allow him to grasp the meaning of it.
In the Verse 255 in Bakara Allah said, `Nor shall they compass aught of His knowledge except as He willeth.'

So  in 10:39 it could be meant that as the disbelievers disbelieve, reject, don't pay attention, they dont research, don't ponder over the verses so they are unaware or unable to grasp the meaning of what was said in the verses especially in the mutashabih verses. They simply deny at first hearing saying that this is strange, this is magic..etc.  And patience is very important to understand something. In Musa (pbuh) case (18:65-82) we see that loosing patience is not good to learn great things.

So if they did not deny at first hearing, if they tried to understand, probably they could encompass its interpretation which `has not yet come to them'.

Allah Knows Best.
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